NSG 5240 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FINAL
PRACTICE EXAM – QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS |
VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS
RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM
UPDATE | STUVIA VERIFIED | EXAM PREP | STUDY
GUIDE | PRACTICE TEST
1. A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What is the primary mechanism of
action?
A. Blocks calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle
B. Inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
C. Stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors
D. Increases aldosterone secretion
Correct Answer: B. Inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
Rationale: Lisinopril reduces angiotensin II production by inhibiting ACE, leading to vasodilation
and decreased blood pressure.
2. A patient taking warfarin presents with elevated INR. Which food is most likely
responsible?
A. Apples
B. Spinach
C. Rice
D. Chicken
Correct Answer: C. Rice
Rationale: Rice does not affect vitamin K levels, whereas green leafy vegetables increase vitamin
K and may decrease INR.
, 3. Which drug class is most associated with dry cough as a side effect?
A. Beta-blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Diuretics
Correct Answer: A. Beta-blockers
Rationale: Beta-blockers can cause bronchoconstriction and respiratory symptoms in susceptible
patients.
4. A patient receiving digoxin toxicity is most likely to present with:
A. Hypertension
B. Bradycardia and visual disturbances
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Tachypnea
Correct Answer: D. Tachypnea
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity commonly causes bradycardia, nausea, and visual changes, not
tachypnea.
5. What is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose?
A. Naloxone
B. Atropine
C. N-acetylcysteine
D. Vitamin K
Correct Answer: B. Atropine
Rationale: Atropine is used for bradycardia, not acetaminophen toxicity; N-acetylcysteine is the
correct antidote.
6. Which insulin has the fastest onset of action?
A. NPH insulin
B. Regular insulin
C. Lispro insulin
D. Glargine insulin
,Correct Answer: C. Lispro insulin
Rationale: Rapid-acting insulins like lispro have the fastest onset, used for mealtime glucose
control.
7. A patient on aminoglycosides should be monitored for:
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: D. Hypertension
Rationale: Aminoglycosides are primarily associated with nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity, not
hypertension.
8. Which medication is a beta-2 agonist?
A. Albuterol
B. Propranolol
C. Labetalol
D. Atenolol
Correct Answer: A. Albuterol
Rationale: Albuterol stimulates beta-2 receptors causing bronchodilation.
9. A patient taking metformin should be monitored for:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Lactic acidosis
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: B. Lactic acidosis
Rationale: Metformin carries a rare but serious risk of lactic acidosis.
10. Which antibiotic class inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit?
A. Penicillins
B. Macrolides
, C. Tetracyclines
D. Cephalosporins
Correct Answer: C. Tetracyclines
Rationale: Tetracyclines inhibit bacterial protein synthesis at the 30S ribosomal subunit.
11. A patient on heparin therapy is at risk for:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Bleeding
C. Hypertension
D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: D. Hypernatremia
Rationale: Heparin increases bleeding risk due to anticoagulation effects.
12. Which medication is used for opioid overdose reversal?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Atropine
D. Protamine sulfate
Correct Answer: A. Flumazenil
Rationale: Naloxone reverses opioid effects such as respiratory depression.
13. Loop diuretics primarily act on the:
A. Distal convoluted tubule
B. Collecting duct
C. Loop of Henle
D. Proximal tubule
Correct Answer: B. Collecting duct
Rationale: Loop diuretics act on the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
14. A serious adverse effect of clozapine is:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Agranulocytosis
PRACTICE EXAM – QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS |
VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS
RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM
UPDATE | STUVIA VERIFIED | EXAM PREP | STUDY
GUIDE | PRACTICE TEST
1. A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What is the primary mechanism of
action?
A. Blocks calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle
B. Inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
C. Stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors
D. Increases aldosterone secretion
Correct Answer: B. Inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
Rationale: Lisinopril reduces angiotensin II production by inhibiting ACE, leading to vasodilation
and decreased blood pressure.
2. A patient taking warfarin presents with elevated INR. Which food is most likely
responsible?
A. Apples
B. Spinach
C. Rice
D. Chicken
Correct Answer: C. Rice
Rationale: Rice does not affect vitamin K levels, whereas green leafy vegetables increase vitamin
K and may decrease INR.
, 3. Which drug class is most associated with dry cough as a side effect?
A. Beta-blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Diuretics
Correct Answer: A. Beta-blockers
Rationale: Beta-blockers can cause bronchoconstriction and respiratory symptoms in susceptible
patients.
4. A patient receiving digoxin toxicity is most likely to present with:
A. Hypertension
B. Bradycardia and visual disturbances
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Tachypnea
Correct Answer: D. Tachypnea
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity commonly causes bradycardia, nausea, and visual changes, not
tachypnea.
5. What is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose?
A. Naloxone
B. Atropine
C. N-acetylcysteine
D. Vitamin K
Correct Answer: B. Atropine
Rationale: Atropine is used for bradycardia, not acetaminophen toxicity; N-acetylcysteine is the
correct antidote.
6. Which insulin has the fastest onset of action?
A. NPH insulin
B. Regular insulin
C. Lispro insulin
D. Glargine insulin
,Correct Answer: C. Lispro insulin
Rationale: Rapid-acting insulins like lispro have the fastest onset, used for mealtime glucose
control.
7. A patient on aminoglycosides should be monitored for:
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Nephrotoxicity
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: D. Hypertension
Rationale: Aminoglycosides are primarily associated with nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity, not
hypertension.
8. Which medication is a beta-2 agonist?
A. Albuterol
B. Propranolol
C. Labetalol
D. Atenolol
Correct Answer: A. Albuterol
Rationale: Albuterol stimulates beta-2 receptors causing bronchodilation.
9. A patient taking metformin should be monitored for:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Lactic acidosis
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: B. Lactic acidosis
Rationale: Metformin carries a rare but serious risk of lactic acidosis.
10. Which antibiotic class inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit?
A. Penicillins
B. Macrolides
, C. Tetracyclines
D. Cephalosporins
Correct Answer: C. Tetracyclines
Rationale: Tetracyclines inhibit bacterial protein synthesis at the 30S ribosomal subunit.
11. A patient on heparin therapy is at risk for:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Bleeding
C. Hypertension
D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: D. Hypernatremia
Rationale: Heparin increases bleeding risk due to anticoagulation effects.
12. Which medication is used for opioid overdose reversal?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Atropine
D. Protamine sulfate
Correct Answer: A. Flumazenil
Rationale: Naloxone reverses opioid effects such as respiratory depression.
13. Loop diuretics primarily act on the:
A. Distal convoluted tubule
B. Collecting duct
C. Loop of Henle
D. Proximal tubule
Correct Answer: B. Collecting duct
Rationale: Loop diuretics act on the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
14. A serious adverse effect of clozapine is:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Agranulocytosis
