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BSN HESI 366 RN Exit Exam V3: 2026/2027 Update with Verified Answers

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Prepare for the BSN HESI 366 RN Exit Exam with this V3 review from Nightingale. Includes 100 expert-verified questions, answers, and explanations for a passing score.

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BSN HESI 366 RN Exit Exam V3 Questions
and Ansẉers with
Expert-Verified Explanation 2026\2027
update -Nightingale




This Exam contains:


 Guarantee passing score

 Questions and Ansẉers

 format set of multiple-choice

 Expert-Verified Explanation

,  Verified ẉith trusted textbooks




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1. A client with COPD is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The
client's SpO2 is 88%. What action should the nurse take first?
A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 L/min
B. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing
C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
D. Assess the client's respiratory rate and effort
Correct answer D
Expert- Explanation Before making any changes to oxygen delivery, the
nurse must first assess the client's current respiratory status. COPD clients rely
on hypoxic drive, so increasing oxygen without assessment could suppress the
respiratory drive. Pursed-lip breathing (B) is appropriate but secondary to
assessment.
2. A client post-thyroidectomy reports tingling around the mouth and in the
fingers. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Check the calcium level
B. Administer prescribed levothyroxine
C. Assess for bleeding at the surgical site
D. Prepare for emergency intubation
Correct answer A
Expert- Explanation Tingling around the mouth and fingers is a classic sign
of hypocalcemia due to accidental removal or damage to the parathyroid glands
during thyroidectomy. The nurse should check the calcium level immediately.
3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV. Before
administering the medication, what assessment is most important?
A. Auscultate lung sounds
B. Check the potassium level
C. Monitor blood pressure
D. Assess urine output
Correct answer B

, Expert- Explanation Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium
wasting. Before administration, the nurse must verify the potassium level to
prevent hypokalemia, which can cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias.
4. A client with a nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction has an
output of 1200 mL in 8 hours. What electrolyte imbalance should the nurse
monitor for?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer C
Expert- Explanation NG suction removes gastric acid (hydrochloric acid),
leading to loss of hydrogen and chloride ions. This results in hypochloremic
metabolic alkalosis, characterized by elevated bicarbonate levels.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose of 48 mg/dL. The client is
alert and able to swallow. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Administer 1 mg glucagon IM
B. Give 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate
C. Start D5W IV infusion
D. Recheck blood glucose in 30 minutes
Correct answer B
Expert- Explanation For an alert client with hypoglycemia who can swallow,
the treatment of choice is 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate (glucose
tablets, juice, or regular soda). Glucagon (A) is for unconscious clients or those
unable to swallow.
6. A client with a chest tube becomes disconnected from the drainage system.
What is the nurse's first action?
A. Clamp the chest tube immediately
B. Place the end of the tube in sterile water
C. Reconnect the tube to the drainage system
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer B
Expert- Explanation If a chest tube disconnects, the nurse should
immediately place the end in sterile water to create a water seal, preventing air
from entering the pleural space. Clamping (A) can cause a tension
pneumothorax.
7. A client with acute pancreatitis reports severe abdominal pain. Which
position should the nurse suggest for comfort?

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