Which of the following valves are open during ventricular systole?
A) Mitral and tricuspid
B) Aortic and pulmonic
C) Mitral and aortic
D) Aortic and tricuspid
ACCN textbook - ANSWERB) Aortic and pulmonic
Which lobe of the right lung cannot be assessed from the anterior chest wall?
A) Right upper
B) Right lower
C) Right middle
ACCN textbook - ANSWERB) Right lower
Regarding pulse pressure, we know that the normal resting pulse pressure should be 40 mmHg.
A) True
B) False - ANSWERA) True
Widened pulse pressure is an indicator of increased cardiovascular risk.
A) True
B) False - ANSWERA) True
Regarding pitting edema in the extremities, 2+ edema indicates there is:
A) a 6 mm deep indentation and it takes >1 minute to disappear.
B) a 4 mm moderate indentation and it takes 10-15 seconds to disappear
,C) No edema present
D) a 2 mm mild or slight indentation and that rapidly disappears
E) an 8 mm very deep indentation and it takes 5-8 minutes to disappear - ANSWERB) a 4 mm moderate
indentation and it takes 10-15 seconds to disappear
Identify the average rate of an escaping ventricular rhythm.
A) 20-40 bpm
B) 50-100 bpm
C) 100-160 bpm
D) 60-80 bpm - ANSWERA) 20-40 bpm
The most dangerous complication associated with a prolonged QT interval is the development of:
A) atrial fibrillation
B) Torsade de pointes (ventricular tachycardia)
C) Junctional tachycardia
D) Bradycardia - ANSWERB) Torsade de pointes (ventricular tachycardia)
Identify the electrocardiographic criteria for second degree type II AV block:
A) progressive prolongation of the PR interval, before dropped beats
B) fixed and normal PR intervals, a wide QRS, and random dropping of beats
C) complete AV dissociation from complete heart block
D) abnormally short PR intervals - ANSWERB) fixed and normal PR intervals, a wide QRS, and random
dropping of beats
Identify the electrocardiographic criteria for second degree type I AV block:
A) progressive prolongation of the PR interval, before dropped beats
B) fixed and normal PR intervals, a wide QRS, and random dropping of beats
C) complete AV dissociation from complete heart block
D) abnormally short PR interval - ANSWERA) progressive prolongation of the PR interval, before dropped
beats
,About the management of documented ACS, the recommendations are:
A) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 90 mins, or door to fibrinolysis goal of 30
min.
B) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 30 mins, or door to fibrinolysis goal of 60
min.
C) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 40 mins, or door to fibrinolysis goal of 20
min.
D) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 20 mins, or door to fibrinolysis goal of 30
min. - ANSWERA) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 90 mins, or door to
fibrinolysis goal of 30 min.
Which of the following coronary arteries are involved when myocardial ischemia or injury is present in
the anterior wall?
A) left anterior descending (LAD)
B) circumflex (Cx)
C) obtuse marginal (OM)
D) right coronary artery (RCA) - ANSWERA) left anterior descending (LAD)
Which of the following coronary arteries are involved when myocardial ischemia or injury is present in
the anterior and lateral walls?
A) left anterior descending (LAD)
B) circumflex (Cx)
C) obtuse marginal (OM)
D) right coronary artery (RCA) - ANSWERB) circumflex (Cx)
When there is an inferior infarction, evidence based practice standards tell us that there is upwards of a
40% association of a right ventricular infarction necessitating that we record:
A) a standard 12-lead ECG
B) a 15-lead ECG involving the recording of the right side of the chest (V4R-V6R)
C) a 15-lead ECG involving the recording of the posterior chest wall (V7-V9)
, D) a complete 18-lead ECG involving (V4R-V6R and V7-V9) - ANSWERB) a 15-lead ECG involving the
recording of the right side of the chest (V4R-V6R)
What is the most important predictor of a positive patient outcome following a myocardial infarction?
A) the height of ST elevation
B) CK-MB levels
C) troponin I levels
D) successful reperfusion - ANSWERD) successful reperfusion
Regarding troponin I, which of the following statements is not true?
A) troponin I will be detectable within 4 hours after onset of acute MI
B) troponin I will reach peak levels within 24 hours after onset of acute MI
C) troponin I may remain elevated for only 48 hours after onset of acute MI
D) troponin I may remain elevated for 5-10 days after onset of acute MI - ANSWERC) troponin I may
remain elevated for only 48 hours after onset of acute MI
End organ damage from hypertensive emergencies includes:
A) pulmonary edema with respiratory failure
B) severe pre-eclampsia in the pregnant patient
C) unstable angina or acute MI
D) mitral stenosis
E) b, c, and d only
F) a, b, and c only - ANSWERF) a, b, and c only
What effect does high blood pressure have on the Renin-Angiotensin system?
A) high pressures decrease renin production in the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys resulting in
vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure
B) high pressures increase renin production in the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys resulting in
vasoconstriction and a increase in blood pressure
A) Mitral and tricuspid
B) Aortic and pulmonic
C) Mitral and aortic
D) Aortic and tricuspid
ACCN textbook - ANSWERB) Aortic and pulmonic
Which lobe of the right lung cannot be assessed from the anterior chest wall?
A) Right upper
B) Right lower
C) Right middle
ACCN textbook - ANSWERB) Right lower
Regarding pulse pressure, we know that the normal resting pulse pressure should be 40 mmHg.
A) True
B) False - ANSWERA) True
Widened pulse pressure is an indicator of increased cardiovascular risk.
A) True
B) False - ANSWERA) True
Regarding pitting edema in the extremities, 2+ edema indicates there is:
A) a 6 mm deep indentation and it takes >1 minute to disappear.
B) a 4 mm moderate indentation and it takes 10-15 seconds to disappear
,C) No edema present
D) a 2 mm mild or slight indentation and that rapidly disappears
E) an 8 mm very deep indentation and it takes 5-8 minutes to disappear - ANSWERB) a 4 mm moderate
indentation and it takes 10-15 seconds to disappear
Identify the average rate of an escaping ventricular rhythm.
A) 20-40 bpm
B) 50-100 bpm
C) 100-160 bpm
D) 60-80 bpm - ANSWERA) 20-40 bpm
The most dangerous complication associated with a prolonged QT interval is the development of:
A) atrial fibrillation
B) Torsade de pointes (ventricular tachycardia)
C) Junctional tachycardia
D) Bradycardia - ANSWERB) Torsade de pointes (ventricular tachycardia)
Identify the electrocardiographic criteria for second degree type II AV block:
A) progressive prolongation of the PR interval, before dropped beats
B) fixed and normal PR intervals, a wide QRS, and random dropping of beats
C) complete AV dissociation from complete heart block
D) abnormally short PR intervals - ANSWERB) fixed and normal PR intervals, a wide QRS, and random
dropping of beats
Identify the electrocardiographic criteria for second degree type I AV block:
A) progressive prolongation of the PR interval, before dropped beats
B) fixed and normal PR intervals, a wide QRS, and random dropping of beats
C) complete AV dissociation from complete heart block
D) abnormally short PR interval - ANSWERA) progressive prolongation of the PR interval, before dropped
beats
,About the management of documented ACS, the recommendations are:
A) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 90 mins, or door to fibrinolysis goal of 30
min.
B) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 30 mins, or door to fibrinolysis goal of 60
min.
C) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 40 mins, or door to fibrinolysis goal of 20
min.
D) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 20 mins, or door to fibrinolysis goal of 30
min. - ANSWERA) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 90 mins, or door to
fibrinolysis goal of 30 min.
Which of the following coronary arteries are involved when myocardial ischemia or injury is present in
the anterior wall?
A) left anterior descending (LAD)
B) circumflex (Cx)
C) obtuse marginal (OM)
D) right coronary artery (RCA) - ANSWERA) left anterior descending (LAD)
Which of the following coronary arteries are involved when myocardial ischemia or injury is present in
the anterior and lateral walls?
A) left anterior descending (LAD)
B) circumflex (Cx)
C) obtuse marginal (OM)
D) right coronary artery (RCA) - ANSWERB) circumflex (Cx)
When there is an inferior infarction, evidence based practice standards tell us that there is upwards of a
40% association of a right ventricular infarction necessitating that we record:
A) a standard 12-lead ECG
B) a 15-lead ECG involving the recording of the right side of the chest (V4R-V6R)
C) a 15-lead ECG involving the recording of the posterior chest wall (V7-V9)
, D) a complete 18-lead ECG involving (V4R-V6R and V7-V9) - ANSWERB) a 15-lead ECG involving the
recording of the right side of the chest (V4R-V6R)
What is the most important predictor of a positive patient outcome following a myocardial infarction?
A) the height of ST elevation
B) CK-MB levels
C) troponin I levels
D) successful reperfusion - ANSWERD) successful reperfusion
Regarding troponin I, which of the following statements is not true?
A) troponin I will be detectable within 4 hours after onset of acute MI
B) troponin I will reach peak levels within 24 hours after onset of acute MI
C) troponin I may remain elevated for only 48 hours after onset of acute MI
D) troponin I may remain elevated for 5-10 days after onset of acute MI - ANSWERC) troponin I may
remain elevated for only 48 hours after onset of acute MI
End organ damage from hypertensive emergencies includes:
A) pulmonary edema with respiratory failure
B) severe pre-eclampsia in the pregnant patient
C) unstable angina or acute MI
D) mitral stenosis
E) b, c, and d only
F) a, b, and c only - ANSWERF) a, b, and c only
What effect does high blood pressure have on the Renin-Angiotensin system?
A) high pressures decrease renin production in the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys resulting in
vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure
B) high pressures increase renin production in the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys resulting in
vasoconstriction and a increase in blood pressure
