1
ATI RN Med-Surg Retake Exam Actual Exam
2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style Questions with
Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified – Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Perioperative & Postoperative Care
Q1: The nurse is preparing a client for a scheduled mastectomy. The client states, “I am worried
about the pain after surgery.” Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing response?
A. “You will receive medication that will take away all the pain.”
B. “Pain is expected, but we will keep it manageable so you can cough and move.”
C. “The surgery is very common, so most patients do not report severe pain.”
D. “We can deal with the pain if it becomes too much for you to handle.” [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Setting a realistic expectation that pain will be managed validates the client's concern
without promising total absence of pain or minimizing it.
Q2: A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy with polypectomy. The nurse understands this
procedure is classified as which type of surgery?
A. Ablative
B. Diagnostic
C. Palliative
D. Restorative [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Restorative surgery restores function or appearance; removing a polyp to restore
normal bowel function fits this definition, though it also has a diagnostic component.
Q3: During the preoperative assessment, the nurse notes the client has a history of latex allergy.
Which action is most critical to prevent anaphylaxis?
,2
A. Place a latex allergy identification bracelet on the client.
B. Schedule the client as the first case of the day.
C. Ensure all operating room equipment is latex-free. [CORRECT]
D. Administer prophylactic antihistamines and corticosteroids.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: While all actions are important, ensuring the environment is free of latex is the
primary intervention to prevent exposure.
Q4: The nurse is teaching a client about preoperative fasting. Which statement by the client
indicates understanding?
A. “I can drink coffee with cream until 2 hours before surgery.”
B. “I need to stop eating solid food 8 hours before my surgery.” [CORRECT]
C. “I can continue to drink clear liquids until the time of surgery.”
D. “I should take my morning medications with a sip of water.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Standard NPO guidelines typically require stopping solid foods 6 to 8 hours prior to
surgery; clear liquids are often allowed up to 2 hours prior, but specific protocols vary.
Q5: Which preoperative laboratory value would be most concerning for a client scheduled for
coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery?
A. Hemoglobin 9.0 g/dL
B. Platelet count 150,000/mm³
C. White blood cell count 8,000/mm³
D. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A hemoglobin of 9.0 g/dL indicates anemia, which reduces oxygen-carrying capacity
and increases the risk of complications during major cardiac surgery.
,3
Q6: The nurse is completing a timeout protocol in the operating room. Which action is the
primary purpose of this procedure?
A. To verify the correct surgical site and patient identity. [CORRECT]
B. To ensure the surgical team has taken a break.
C. To count the sponges and instruments before incision.
D. To confirm the anesthesia machine is working.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The timeout (or surgical pause) is a safety check to confirm the correct patient,
procedure, and site.
Q7: A client is undergoing general anesthesia. The nurse monitors for the most common
complication of general anesthesia, which is:
A. Malignant hyperthermia
B. Hypothermia [CORRECT]
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypothermia is the most common complication due to the cool operating room
environment, impaired thermoregulation from anesthesia, and exposed body cavities.
Q8: In the Post-Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU), a client’s oxygen saturation drops to 88% while
receiving supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min. What is the nurse’s first action?
A. Increase the oxygen to 4 L/min.
B. Check the position of the nasal cannula. [CORRECT]
C. Prepare for intubation.
D. Suction the client’s mouth.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The first action is to ensure the device is positioned correctly before escalating
interventions, as displacement is a common cause of desaturation.
, 4
Q9: The nurse uses the Aldrete score to assess a client in the PACU. Which parameter is NOT
included in this scoring system?
A. Activity
B. Respiration
C. Consciousness
D. Pain level [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Aldrete score assesses activity, respiration, circulation, consciousness, and color;
pain is not part of this specific recovery scoring system.
Q10: A client reports nausea in the PACU. The nurse administers an antiemetic. Which
nonpharmacological intervention can also be effective?
A. Offering ice chips immediately
B. Encouraging deep breathing
C. Applying cool cloths to the forehead [CORRECT]
D. Placing the client in a supine position
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cool cloths to the forehead can help relieve nausea; ice chips should be avoided until
the gag reflex returns, and deep breathing may be difficult if nauseous.
Q11: A client who had a total hip replacement is receiving Patient-Controlled Analgesia (PCA)
with morphine. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
A. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
B. Pain level of 4/10
C. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr
D. Dizziness when sitting up [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A
ATI RN Med-Surg Retake Exam Actual Exam
2026/2027 – Complete Exam-Style Questions with
Detailed Rationales | 100% Verified – Pass
Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Perioperative & Postoperative Care
Q1: The nurse is preparing a client for a scheduled mastectomy. The client states, “I am worried
about the pain after surgery.” Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing response?
A. “You will receive medication that will take away all the pain.”
B. “Pain is expected, but we will keep it manageable so you can cough and move.”
C. “The surgery is very common, so most patients do not report severe pain.”
D. “We can deal with the pain if it becomes too much for you to handle.” [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Setting a realistic expectation that pain will be managed validates the client's concern
without promising total absence of pain or minimizing it.
Q2: A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy with polypectomy. The nurse understands this
procedure is classified as which type of surgery?
A. Ablative
B. Diagnostic
C. Palliative
D. Restorative [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Restorative surgery restores function or appearance; removing a polyp to restore
normal bowel function fits this definition, though it also has a diagnostic component.
Q3: During the preoperative assessment, the nurse notes the client has a history of latex allergy.
Which action is most critical to prevent anaphylaxis?
,2
A. Place a latex allergy identification bracelet on the client.
B. Schedule the client as the first case of the day.
C. Ensure all operating room equipment is latex-free. [CORRECT]
D. Administer prophylactic antihistamines and corticosteroids.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: While all actions are important, ensuring the environment is free of latex is the
primary intervention to prevent exposure.
Q4: The nurse is teaching a client about preoperative fasting. Which statement by the client
indicates understanding?
A. “I can drink coffee with cream until 2 hours before surgery.”
B. “I need to stop eating solid food 8 hours before my surgery.” [CORRECT]
C. “I can continue to drink clear liquids until the time of surgery.”
D. “I should take my morning medications with a sip of water.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Standard NPO guidelines typically require stopping solid foods 6 to 8 hours prior to
surgery; clear liquids are often allowed up to 2 hours prior, but specific protocols vary.
Q5: Which preoperative laboratory value would be most concerning for a client scheduled for
coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery?
A. Hemoglobin 9.0 g/dL
B. Platelet count 150,000/mm³
C. White blood cell count 8,000/mm³
D. Serum sodium 138 mEq/L [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A hemoglobin of 9.0 g/dL indicates anemia, which reduces oxygen-carrying capacity
and increases the risk of complications during major cardiac surgery.
,3
Q6: The nurse is completing a timeout protocol in the operating room. Which action is the
primary purpose of this procedure?
A. To verify the correct surgical site and patient identity. [CORRECT]
B. To ensure the surgical team has taken a break.
C. To count the sponges and instruments before incision.
D. To confirm the anesthesia machine is working.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The timeout (or surgical pause) is a safety check to confirm the correct patient,
procedure, and site.
Q7: A client is undergoing general anesthesia. The nurse monitors for the most common
complication of general anesthesia, which is:
A. Malignant hyperthermia
B. Hypothermia [CORRECT]
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypothermia is the most common complication due to the cool operating room
environment, impaired thermoregulation from anesthesia, and exposed body cavities.
Q8: In the Post-Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU), a client’s oxygen saturation drops to 88% while
receiving supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min. What is the nurse’s first action?
A. Increase the oxygen to 4 L/min.
B. Check the position of the nasal cannula. [CORRECT]
C. Prepare for intubation.
D. Suction the client’s mouth.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The first action is to ensure the device is positioned correctly before escalating
interventions, as displacement is a common cause of desaturation.
, 4
Q9: The nurse uses the Aldrete score to assess a client in the PACU. Which parameter is NOT
included in this scoring system?
A. Activity
B. Respiration
C. Consciousness
D. Pain level [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Aldrete score assesses activity, respiration, circulation, consciousness, and color;
pain is not part of this specific recovery scoring system.
Q10: A client reports nausea in the PACU. The nurse administers an antiemetic. Which
nonpharmacological intervention can also be effective?
A. Offering ice chips immediately
B. Encouraging deep breathing
C. Applying cool cloths to the forehead [CORRECT]
D. Placing the client in a supine position
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cool cloths to the forehead can help relieve nausea; ice chips should be avoided until
the gag reflex returns, and deep breathing may be difficult if nauseous.
Q11: A client who had a total hip replacement is receiving Patient-Controlled Analgesia (PCA)
with morphine. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
A. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
B. Pain level of 4/10
C. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr
D. Dizziness when sitting up [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A
