Utah Dental Hygienist Licensing Exam Practice
Questions and Correct Answers (Verified Answers)
Plus Rationales 2026/2027 Q&A| Instant Download
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1. Which of the following bacteria is most commonly associated with dental caries?
A. Streptococcus mutans
B. Porphyromonas gingivalis
C. Lactobacillus acidophilus
D. Fusobacterium nucleatum
Answer & Rationale: A. Streptococcus mutans – S. mutans is the primary bacterium
responsible for initiating dental caries due to its ability to metabolize sucrose into lactic
acid, leading to enamel demineralization.
2. The ideal angulation for scaling a supra-gingival calculus deposit with a curette is:
A. 30–45 degrees
B. 45–90 degrees
C. 60–80 degrees
D. 90–110 degrees
Answer & Rationale: C. 60–80 degrees – This angulation allows effective calculus removal
while minimizing trauma to the surrounding soft tissues.
3. Fluoride varnish is indicated for which of the following patients?
A. A patient with severe gingivitis but no caries
B. A patient at high risk for dental caries
C. A patient with periodontal pockets >6 mm
D. A patient with orthodontic appliances only
Answer & Rationale: B. A patient at high risk for dental caries – Fluoride varnish helps
remineralize enamel and reduce caries risk, especially in high-risk individuals.
4. What is the most common adverse effect of local anesthetic containing epinephrine?
A. Bradycardia
B. Tachycardia
C. Hypotension
D. Respiratory depression
Answer & Rationale: B. Tachycardia – Epinephrine can stimulate the sympathetic nervous
system, causing transient increases in heart rate and blood pressure.
5. Which instrument is best for detecting subgingival calculus?
A. Explorer 11/12
, B. Periodontal probe
C. Sickle scaler
D. Curette universal
Answer & Rationale: A. Explorer 11/12 – Its thin, flexible tip allows tactile detection of
subgingival deposits.
6. The primary purpose of a periodontal probe is to:
A. Remove calculus
B. Measure pocket depth
C. Polishing teeth
D. Scale root surfaces
Answer & Rationale: B. Measure pocket depth – Probes are designed to assess sulcus or
periodontal pocket depth for periodontal evaluation.
7. Which radiographic technique provides the best evaluation of interproximal caries?
A. Periapical radiograph
B. Panoramic radiograph
C. Bitewing radiograph
D. Occlusal radiograph
Answer & Rationale: C. Bitewing radiograph – Bitewings are optimized for detecting
proximal caries and assessing alveolar bone height.
8. Which vitamin deficiency is most commonly associated with impaired wound healing in
oral tissues?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
Answer & Rationale: B. Vitamin C – Deficiency leads to scurvy, characterized by delayed
wound healing, gingival bleeding, and fragile connective tissue.
9. The term “supragingival” refers to:
A. Below the gingival margin
B. On the occlusal surface
C. Above the gingival margin
D. Within the periodontal pocket
Answer & Rationale: C. Above the gingival margin – Supragingival deposits are located on
the exposed crown surfaces, above the gumline.
10. Which condition is most likely indicated by a bluish lesion on the gingiva?
A. Amalgam tattoo
, B. Aphthous ulcer
C. Herpetic lesion
D. Leukoplakia
Answer & Rationale: A. Amalgam tattoo – Pigmented lesions caused by embedded
amalgam particles often appear bluish to gray on gingival tissue.
11. Which local anesthetic has the longest duration of action?
A. Lidocaine
B. Mepivacaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Articaine
Answer & Rationale: C. Bupivacaine – It provides prolonged pulpal and soft tissue
anesthesia, often lasting several hours.
12. What is the recommended maximum safe dose of epinephrine in a healthy adult patient?
A. 0.04 mg
B. 0.2 mg
C. 0.04 g
D. 0.2 g
Answer & Rationale: A. 0.04 mg – For healthy adults, this is the recommended maximum
single dose to minimize cardiovascular risks.
13. Which periodontal disease is most commonly seen in teenagers?
A. Chronic periodontitis
B. Aggressive periodontitis
C. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
D. Gingival hyperplasia
Answer & Rationale: B. Aggressive periodontitis – Often affects adolescents with rapid
attachment loss despite minimal plaque accumulation.
14. What is the most effective method for reducing aerosol contamination in dental hygiene
procedures?
A. Using an air polisher
B. High-volume evacuator suction
C. Mouth rinsing with water
D. Brushing teeth before scaling
Answer & Rationale: B. High-volume evacuator suction – HVEs reduce aerosol spread by
more than 90%, improving infection control.
15. Which type of toothbrushing technique is recommended for patients with gingival
recession?
Questions and Correct Answers (Verified Answers)
Plus Rationales 2026/2027 Q&A| Instant Download
1. Which of the following bacteria is most commonly associated with dental caries?
A. Streptococcus mutans
B. Porphyromonas gingivalis
C. Lactobacillus acidophilus
D. Fusobacterium nucleatum
Answer & Rationale: A. Streptococcus mutans – S. mutans is the primary bacterium
responsible for initiating dental caries due to its ability to metabolize sucrose into lactic
acid, leading to enamel demineralization.
2. The ideal angulation for scaling a supra-gingival calculus deposit with a curette is:
A. 30–45 degrees
B. 45–90 degrees
C. 60–80 degrees
D. 90–110 degrees
Answer & Rationale: C. 60–80 degrees – This angulation allows effective calculus removal
while minimizing trauma to the surrounding soft tissues.
3. Fluoride varnish is indicated for which of the following patients?
A. A patient with severe gingivitis but no caries
B. A patient at high risk for dental caries
C. A patient with periodontal pockets >6 mm
D. A patient with orthodontic appliances only
Answer & Rationale: B. A patient at high risk for dental caries – Fluoride varnish helps
remineralize enamel and reduce caries risk, especially in high-risk individuals.
4. What is the most common adverse effect of local anesthetic containing epinephrine?
A. Bradycardia
B. Tachycardia
C. Hypotension
D. Respiratory depression
Answer & Rationale: B. Tachycardia – Epinephrine can stimulate the sympathetic nervous
system, causing transient increases in heart rate and blood pressure.
5. Which instrument is best for detecting subgingival calculus?
A. Explorer 11/12
, B. Periodontal probe
C. Sickle scaler
D. Curette universal
Answer & Rationale: A. Explorer 11/12 – Its thin, flexible tip allows tactile detection of
subgingival deposits.
6. The primary purpose of a periodontal probe is to:
A. Remove calculus
B. Measure pocket depth
C. Polishing teeth
D. Scale root surfaces
Answer & Rationale: B. Measure pocket depth – Probes are designed to assess sulcus or
periodontal pocket depth for periodontal evaluation.
7. Which radiographic technique provides the best evaluation of interproximal caries?
A. Periapical radiograph
B. Panoramic radiograph
C. Bitewing radiograph
D. Occlusal radiograph
Answer & Rationale: C. Bitewing radiograph – Bitewings are optimized for detecting
proximal caries and assessing alveolar bone height.
8. Which vitamin deficiency is most commonly associated with impaired wound healing in
oral tissues?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
Answer & Rationale: B. Vitamin C – Deficiency leads to scurvy, characterized by delayed
wound healing, gingival bleeding, and fragile connective tissue.
9. The term “supragingival” refers to:
A. Below the gingival margin
B. On the occlusal surface
C. Above the gingival margin
D. Within the periodontal pocket
Answer & Rationale: C. Above the gingival margin – Supragingival deposits are located on
the exposed crown surfaces, above the gumline.
10. Which condition is most likely indicated by a bluish lesion on the gingiva?
A. Amalgam tattoo
, B. Aphthous ulcer
C. Herpetic lesion
D. Leukoplakia
Answer & Rationale: A. Amalgam tattoo – Pigmented lesions caused by embedded
amalgam particles often appear bluish to gray on gingival tissue.
11. Which local anesthetic has the longest duration of action?
A. Lidocaine
B. Mepivacaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Articaine
Answer & Rationale: C. Bupivacaine – It provides prolonged pulpal and soft tissue
anesthesia, often lasting several hours.
12. What is the recommended maximum safe dose of epinephrine in a healthy adult patient?
A. 0.04 mg
B. 0.2 mg
C. 0.04 g
D. 0.2 g
Answer & Rationale: A. 0.04 mg – For healthy adults, this is the recommended maximum
single dose to minimize cardiovascular risks.
13. Which periodontal disease is most commonly seen in teenagers?
A. Chronic periodontitis
B. Aggressive periodontitis
C. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
D. Gingival hyperplasia
Answer & Rationale: B. Aggressive periodontitis – Often affects adolescents with rapid
attachment loss despite minimal plaque accumulation.
14. What is the most effective method for reducing aerosol contamination in dental hygiene
procedures?
A. Using an air polisher
B. High-volume evacuator suction
C. Mouth rinsing with water
D. Brushing teeth before scaling
Answer & Rationale: B. High-volume evacuator suction – HVEs reduce aerosol spread by
more than 90%, improving infection control.
15. Which type of toothbrushing technique is recommended for patients with gingival
recession?
