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NSG 552 Exam 1 Psychopharmacology (2026/2027) | Wilkes University | 150 Q&A with Rationales | PMHNP/FNP

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Complete NSG 552 Exam 1 Study Guide – Psychopharmacology – Wilkes University (2026/2027 Academic Year) This digital download is a comprehensive 150-question practice exam for NSG 552 Psychopharmacology – Exam 1 at Wilkes University. Designed for graduate nursing students (PMHNP, FNP, AGNP) mastering the foundational principles of psychotropic medications. What's included: 150 multiple-choice questions with detailed rationales 8 organized sections covering all exam topics Answers with evidence-based rationales – learn the "why," not just the "what" Section 1: Foundational Concepts (Q1–35) Pharmacokinetics vs. pharmacodynamics (ADME) Receptor theory: agonists, partial agonists, antagonists, inverse agonists Neurotransmitters: glutamate (excitatory), GABA (inhibitory), serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine Neuroanatomy: amygdala, thalamus, hypothalamus, frontal lobe, Broca's area CYP450 enzyme system: inducers, inhibitors, substrates (grapefruit juice, carbamazepine, valproate) Tolerance, half-life, therapeutic index, receptor upregulation/downregulation Four dopamine pathways: mesolimbic, mesocortical, nigrostriatal, tuberoinfundibular Section 2: Antipsychotics (Q36–85) First-generation (typical) vs. second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics Haloperidol, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, aripiprazole, clozapine EPS: acute dystonia, akathisia, pseudo-Parkinsonism, tardive dyskinesia Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) – FALTERED triad: fever, rigidity, autonomic dysfunction Metabolic syndrome: weight gain, dyslipidemia, hyperglycemia (olanzapine/clozapine highest risk) Prolactin elevation (risperidone highest) Clozapine: treatment-resistant schizophrenia, REMS program, agranulocytosis monitoring, sialorrhea Long-acting injectables (LAIs): haloperidol, fluphenazine, aripiprazole, paliperidone, risperidone D2 occupancy threshold (80% for EPS) VMAT2 inhibitors for tardive dyskinesia (valbenazine, deutetrabenazine) Section 3: Antidepressants (Q86–120) Monoamine theory of depression (serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine deficiency) SSRIs (fluoxetine, sertraline, citalopram, escitalopram, paroxetine) – first-line for MDD Sexual dysfunction – #1 reason for discontinuation SNRIs (venlafaxine, duloxetine, levomilnacipran) – dose-dependent hypertension NDRIs (bupropion) – seizure contraindication, weight-neutral, no sexual side effects Trazodone – SARI, low-dose for insomnia Mirtazapine – alpha-2 antagonist, sedation, weight gain, minimal sexual side effects TCAs – cardiotoxicity in overdose, anticholinergic effects MAOIs – tyramine-free diet, hypertensive crisis risk Serotonin syndrome: triad (AMS, autonomic instability, neuromuscular hyperreactivity) – treated with cyproheptadine Discontinuation syndrome – paroxetine highest risk, fluoxetine lowest Vortioxetine (multimodal), vilazodone (SPARI) Emotional blunting/apathy syndrome from SSRIs Section 4: Integrated & Advanced Concepts (Q121–150) Neuroplasticity, action potentials, chemical synapses, blood-brain barrier Psychoneuroimmunology – stress, cortisol, immune suppression Schizophrenia genetics, depression in Parkinson's, circadian rhythm disruption Stigma reduction, neuroanatomy for psychiatric nursing Drug interactions: St. John's Wort + SSRI → serotonin syndrome Anticonvulsants: lamotrigine + valproate (lamotrigine dose reduce by 50%), Stevens-Johnson syndrome Carbamazepine: agranulocytosis, hyponatremia Valproate: hepatotoxicity, thrombocytopenia Lithium: therapeutic range 0.6–1.2 mEq/L, maintain sodium/water intake, toxicity (coarse tremor, nausea, vomiting, confusion) NMS management: immediate discontinuation + supportive care Why this guide works: 150 unique questions – comprehensive coverage of Exam 1 content Detailed rationales – understand the neurobiological and pharmacological principles Clinically relevant – side effect management, drug interactions, toxicity recognition Exam-ready – mirrors the difficulty and style of Wilkes University NSG 552 Format: PDF (150 questions + answer key + rationales) Institution: Wilkes University Course: NSG 552 – Psychopharmacology Term: 2026/2027 Exam: 1 of 3 (Antipsychotics & Antidepressants focus) Instant download – study on any device or print for offline use.

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NSG 552 EXAM 1 PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY —
COMPLETE 150-QUESTION PRACTICE EXAM
Wilkes University | 2026/2027 | Questions with
Answers & Rationales



SECTION 1: FOUNDATIONAL CONCEPTS (Questions 1-35)

Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, Neurotransmitters, Neuroanatomy

1. The study of what the body does to a drug, including absorption,
distribution, metabolism, and excretion, is known as:
A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacokinetics
C. Psychopharmacology
D. Pharmacogenomics

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics describes how the body processes a drug—
specifically its absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion (ADME).
Pharmacodynamics, conversely, studies what the drug does to the body .

2. The study of what a drug does to the body, including its mechanism of
action and therapeutic effects, is known as:
A. Pharmacokinetics
B. Pharmacodynamics
C. Psychopharmacology
D. Pharmacotherapeutics

,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics focuses on the biochemical and physiological
effects of drugs and their mechanisms of action at the receptor level .

3. The study of the use of psychotropic medications in the treatment of
psychiatric disorders is defined as:
A. Pharmacokinetics
B. Pharmacodynamics
C. Psychopharmacology
D. Neuropharmacology

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Psychopharmacology is the specific field that examines how
psychotropic medications affect the brain and behavior to treat psychiatric
disorders .

4. A drug that binds to a receptor and produces a full biologic response is
called a(n):
A. Antagonist
B. Partial agonist
C. Agonist
D. Inverse agonist

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An agonist binds to a receptor and fully activates it, producing the
maximum biologic response. A partial agonist produces only a partial
response even at full receptor occupancy .

,5. A drug that binds to a receptor but does not fully activate it, producing
only a partial response, is called a(n):
A. Antagonist
B. Partial agonist
C. Full agonist
D. Inverse agonist

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A partial agonist binds to the receptor but has lower intrinsic
activity than a full agonist, producing a submaximal response even when all
receptors are occupied. Aripiprazole is an example .

6. A drug that binds to a receptor and blocks it, preventing a biologic
response, is called a(n):
A. Agonist
B. Partial agonist
C. Antagonist
D. Inverse agonist

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An antagonist binds to a receptor without activating it, thereby
blocking agonists from binding and preventing a biologic response .

7. A drug that binds to the same receptor as an agonist but induces an
opposite biological response is called a(n):
A. Agonist
B. Partial agonist

, C. Antagonist
D. Inverse agonist

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An inverse agonist binds to the same receptor site as an agonist
but produces the opposite effect, reducing constitutive receptor activity
below baseline .

8. The primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system is:
A. GABA
B. Glutamate
C. Dopamine
D. Serotonin

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Glutamate is the main excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS,
functioning as the "on switch" for neuronal activity. Excessive glutamate can
cause excitotoxicity .

9. The primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system
that induces calmness and relaxation is:
A. Glutamate
B. Dopamine
C. Serotonin
D. GABA (Gamma-aminobutyric acid)

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: GABA is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter, acting as the "off

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