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WGU D116 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FINAL EXAM 2026 ACTUAL TEST PAPER WITH ACCURATE SOLUTIONS GRADE A+

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WGU D116 ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FINAL EXAM 2026 ACTUAL TEST PAPER WITH ACCURATE SOLUTIONS GRADE A+

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WGU D116 ADVANCED
Vak
WGU D116 ADVANCED

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

WGU D116 ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY FINAL EXAM 2026
ACTUAL TEST PAPER WITH
ACCURATE SOLUTIONS GRADE A+
◉ A 70-year-old male calls a clinic complaining of chest pain that
started after having sexual activity. He took sildenafil 50 mg about eight
hours ago. He has nitroglycerin 0.3 mg on hand.
How should the advanced practice registered nurse respond? Answer:
Do not take the nitroglycerin and call 911


Taking the medications together can cause a serious drop in blood
pressure leading to cardiovascular collapse.


◉ A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder who is in a mental health
clinic is discussing the possibility of beginning lithium with an advanced
practice registered nurse (APRN). The patient expresses understanding
and wishes to proceed with treatment. The APRN explains to the patient
that this medication requires specific lab monitoring and wants to draw
baseline labs. The patient asks why the test is needed.
Which explanation should the APRN provide to this patient? Answer: A
baseline blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (CREA) level needs
to be drawn to assess kidney function prior to treatment.


This drug can cause decreased renal function, and a baseline should be
drawn for future comparison.

,◉ An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is reviewing the
medications that will be commonly experienced with a new nurse to
determine whether the drugs are safe for the patients. The new nurse is
given a scenario where a patient is being prescribed sildenafil 25 mg po
prn, a prototype drug for erectile dysfunction.
Which patient may take this drug safely? Answer: YES A 54-year-male
with a medical history of hypertension, mild eczema, and previous
history of a urolithiasis where all is well controlled and there are no
current complications


◉ A 30-year-old patient presents to a primary care clinic with a history
of anxiety. The advanced practice registered nurse reviews the
mechanism of action by which many neuropharmacological agents act
and decides to prescribe citalopram.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication? Answer: YES
Influences receptor activity on target cells


Correct! This medication influences the activity in the receptors, and it
targets cells.


◉ A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of Huntington disease. On
admission, the patient exhibits uncontrolled twitching, difficulty
walking, trouble swallowing, confusion, and memory loss. The
advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) prescribes baclofen.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication? Answer: NO
Modulates the effects of glutamate at NMDA receptors
YES Inhibits neurotransmitter GABA
NO Halts the breakdown of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase

,Alters the synthesis and release of norepinephrine, serotonin, and
dopamine
Incorrect. Cholinesterase inhibitors prevent the breakdown of
acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase. They are used in patients with
Alzheimer's.
Correct! Huntington's disease involves a deficiency of the
neurotransmitters acetylcholine and y-aminobutyric acid in the basal
ganglia and extrapyramidal system.


◉ A 21-year-old patient accompanied by a parent comes to a clinic for
an emergency visit with an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN)
following a seizure. Upon interviewing the patient and the parent, the
APRN determines that the seizure is classified by marked impairment of
consciousness and is followed by a period of central nervous system
(CNS) depression.
Which type of seizure is this patient experiencing? Answer: Atonic
NO Myoclonic
YES Tonic-clonic
Absence
Incorrect. Myoclonic seizures consist of a sudden muscle contraction
that lasts for just one second.
Correct! A tonic-clonic seizure is a type of seizure that is also called a
convulsion. This type of seizure can include muscle stiffness, loss of
consciousness, and body jerking.


◉ A patient has been taking oral oxycodone every six hours for back
pain during the past three years. The patient suddenly decides to stop

, taking the pain medication and is trying an alternative therapy without a
clinician's approval.
Which risk is of clinical concern? Answer: YES Physical dependence
Correct! The patient suddenly stopping the medication will cause
physical symptoms that can range from nausea to seizures.


◉ An advanced practice registered nurse has diagnosed a 44-year-old
male with depression. A plan is developed to start treatment with
medication. The patient has a history of sexual dysfunction and is
concerned about taking medication that may worsen this condition.
Which antidepressant has the benefit of enhancing libido? Answer: YES
Bupropion


Correct! Bupropion does not cause sexual dysfunction. This will help the
patient with a history of sexual dysfunction. This will enhance the
patient's libido, which will help with both depression and sexual
dysfunction.


◉ A patient is wheezing and short of breath. The nurse assesses a heart
rate of 88 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute,
and a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg. The prescriber orders a
nonspecific beta-agonist medication.
Besides evaluating the patient for a reduction in respiratory distress, the
nurse should monitor for which side effect? Answer: YES Tachycardia


Correct! Beta-agonists are used for asthma because of their beta2 effects
on bronchial smooth muscle, causing dilation. Beta1 effects cause

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Instelling
WGU D116 ADVANCED
Vak
WGU D116 ADVANCED

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