NEWEST 2026 QUESTIONS and CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+
Correct explanation - CORRECT ANSWER-Stopping abruptly causes withdrawal
and can cause symptoms from nausea to seizures.
A 44-year-old male with depression and sexual dysfunction history needs an
antidepressant that enhances libido. - CORRECT ANSWER-YES Bupropion
Explanation - CORRECT ANSWER-Bupropion does not cause sexual dysfunction
and may improve libido.
A wheezing patient receives a nonspecific beta-agonist. Besides respiratory relief,
what side effect should the nurse monitor? - CORRECT ANSWER-YES
Tachycardia
Explanation - CORRECT ANSWER-Beta1 stimulation causes tachycardia and
hypertension.
,A patient has toxic atropine effects (delirium, hallucinations). Which medication
should the provider administer? - CORRECT ANSWER-YES Physostigmine
Explanation - CORRECT ANSWER-Physostigmine treats atropine poisoning and
crosses the BBB.
A patient presents to an emergency room complaining of palpitations and
irregular heartbeat. The APRN places the patient on a cardiac monitor and
observes atrial fibrillation. The APRN orders dofetilide. How should the APRN
recommend this medication be taken? - CORRECT ANSWER-YES With food or
an empty stomach
A 70-year-old male calls a clinic complaining of chest pain that started after sexual
activity. He took sildenafil 50 mg about eight hours ago. He has nitroglycerin 0.3
mg on hand. How should the APRN respond? - CORRECT ANSWER-Do not take
the nitroglycerin and call 911
Taking the medications together can cause what? - CORRECT ANSWER-A
serious drop in blood pressure leading to cardiovascular collapse.
A patient with bipolar disorder is discussing beginning lithium. The APRN wants
baseline labs. The patient asks why. Which explanation should be provided? -
,CORRECT ANSWER-A baseline BUN and creatinine is needed to assess kidney
function because lithium can decrease renal function.
A new nurse is reviewing sildenafil use. Which patient may take sildenafil safely? -
CORRECT ANSWER-YES A 54-year-old male with controlled hypertension, mild
eczema, and past urolithiasis without complications
A 30-year-old patient with anxiety is prescribed citalopram. What is its
mechanism of action? - CORRECT ANSWER-YES Influences receptor activity on
target cells
Correct explanation of citalopram's mechanism - CORRECT ANSWER-This
medication influences the activity in the receptors, and it targets cells.
A Huntington disease patient has twitching, dysphagia, confusion, memory loss.
APRN prescribes baclofen. Mechanism of action? - CORRECT ANSWER-YES
Inhibits neurotransmitter GABA
NO Modulates the effects of glutamate at NMDA receptors - CORRECT
ANSWER-Incorrect.
, NO Halts breakdown of acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase - CORRECT
ANSWER-Incorrect. Cholinesterase inhibitors prevent ACh breakdown and are
used for Alzheimer's.
Alters synthesis and release of norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine -
CORRECT ANSWER-Incorrect.
Correct explanation - CORRECT ANSWER-Baclofen enhances GABA;
Huntington involves deficiency of acetylcholine and GABA.
A 21-year-old patient has a seizure with impaired consciousness followed by CNS
depression. Type of seizure? - CORRECT ANSWER-YES Tonic-clonic
Atonic - CORRECT ANSWER-NO
Myoclonic - CORRECT ANSWER-NO — consists of sudden 1-second
contractions
Absence - CORRECT ANSWER-NO