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EMT FISDAP Readiness Exam 2 2026/2027
Actual Exam | Latest Update Questions &
Answers | Grade A+ | Pass Guaranteed
Section 1: Preparatory (15 Questions)
Q1: An EMT arrives on the scene of a motor vehicle collision. The scene is safe, and there are
multiple patients. Which of the following actions should the EMT take FIRST?
A. Begin triage of patients
B. Don appropriate PPE [CORRECT]
C. Immediately begin patient assessment
D. Request additional resources
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Scene safety includes personal protective equipment (PPE) for the EMT. Donning
appropriate PPE (gloves, eye protection, high-visibility vest) is the first action to protect the
provider before patient contact. Standard precautions apply to all patients. Option A (triage)
comes after PPE and scene size-up. Option C occurs after PPE. Option D may be needed but not
before self-protection.
Q2: The primary purpose of the EMS system is to:
A. Provide advanced life support to all patients
B. Deliver rapid response, appropriate care, and transport to definitive care [CORRECT]
C. Replace hospital emergency departments
D. Generate revenue for the community
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The EMS system is designed to provide rapid response, appropriate prehospital care,
and timely transport to definitive care facilities. EMTs provide basic life support; ALS is an
extension. EMS does not replace EDs (C) or exist for revenue generation (D).
Q3: An EMT is exposed to potentially infectious blood during patient care. Which document
outlines the employer's responsibilities for post-exposure evaluation?
A. The EMS protocol manual
,2
B. The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (29 CFR 1910.1030) [CORRECT]
C. The HIPAA Privacy Rule
D. The EMT Scope of Practice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires employers to provide post-exposure
evaluation and follow-up at no cost to the employee. This includes risk assessment, testing, and
prophylaxis if indicated. HIPAA (C) addresses privacy; Scope of Practice (D) defines
procedures.
Q4: Which of the following is an example of a qualitative vital sign?
A. Blood pressure
B. Heart rate
C. Level of consciousness [CORRECT]
D. Respiratory rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Qualitative signs are descriptive and subjective (AVPU, pain description, skin color).
Quantitative signs are measurable numerically (blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate,
SpO2). Level of consciousness requires descriptive assessment (Alert, Verbal, Pain,
Unresponsive).
Q5: The EMT's scope of practice is defined by:
A. The medical director only
B. State laws, regulations, and local medical direction [CORRECT]
C. The EMT textbook
D. Hospital protocols only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Scope of practice is legally defined by state statutes and administrative rules, then
operationally defined by local medical direction and protocols. Medical directors (A) work
within state frameworks. Textbooks (C) educate but don't authorize. Hospitals (D) don't define
prehospital scope.
Q6: An EMT is off-duty and encounters a motor vehicle collision. They have no equipment. The
EMT should:
,3
A. Drive away to avoid liability
B. Provide care to the level of their training and available resources [CORRECT]
C. Wait for the ambulance to arrive before acting
D. Only call 911 but not approach
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: EMTs have an ethical duty to act, providing care within their training and available
resources. Good Samaritan laws generally protect off-duty providers acting in good faith.
Options A, C, and D represent abandonment and failure to act.
Q7: Which mode of pathogen transmission involves contact with contaminated objects or
surfaces?
A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Indirect contact transmission [CORRECT]
D. Vector-borne transmission
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Indirect contact (fomite) transmission occurs through contact with contaminated
objects (bed rails, equipment). Droplet (A) involves respiratory droplets >5 microns. Airborne
(B) involves droplet nuclei <5 microns. Vector-borne (D) involves insects/animals.
Q8: The EMT is assessing a patient using the AVPU scale. The patient opens their eyes when
spoken to and answers questions appropriately. This is classified as:
A. Alert [CORRECT]
B. Verbal
C. Painful
D. Unresponsive
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: AVPU: Alert (awake, oriented, interactive), Verbal (responds to voice), Painful
(responds to painful stimulus), Unresponsive (no response). This patient is Alert—they open eyes
spontaneously or to voice and are oriented. Verbal (B) would require stimulus to respond.
Q9: Which of the following is the HIGHEST priority during scene size-up?
A. Patient care
, 4
B. Scene safety [CORRECT]
C. Transport decision
D. Documentation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Scene safety is always the first priority. The EMT cannot help patients if they become
a victim. This includes BSI (Body Substance Isolation), scene hazards (traffic, violence,
environmental), and number of patients. Patient care (A) follows safety.
Q10: An EMT is feeling overwhelmed by stress after multiple difficult calls. The BEST action is
to:
A. Ignore the feelings and continue working
B. Access employee assistance programs or peer support [CORRECT]
C. Self-medicate with alcohol
D. Quit the job immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: EMS providers experience high rates of PTSD and burnout. Accessing EAP, CISM
(Critical Incident Stress Management), or peer support is the healthy, professional response.
Ignoring stress (A) leads to deterioration. Self-medication (C) is dangerous. Quitting (D) may be
premature without support.
Q11: The term "medical direction" refers to:
A. The EMT making independent medical decisions
B. Oversight and authorization provided by a physician [CORRECT]
C. Hospital billing procedures
D. Patient self-transport decisions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Medical direction is the physician oversight that authorizes and supervises EMS
practice. It includes offline (protocols) and online (direct communication) direction. EMTs do
not practice independently (A).
Q12: Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?
A. Producing insulin
B. Protecting vital organs and providing structure [CORRECT]
EMT FISDAP Readiness Exam 2 2026/2027
Actual Exam | Latest Update Questions &
Answers | Grade A+ | Pass Guaranteed
Section 1: Preparatory (15 Questions)
Q1: An EMT arrives on the scene of a motor vehicle collision. The scene is safe, and there are
multiple patients. Which of the following actions should the EMT take FIRST?
A. Begin triage of patients
B. Don appropriate PPE [CORRECT]
C. Immediately begin patient assessment
D. Request additional resources
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Scene safety includes personal protective equipment (PPE) for the EMT. Donning
appropriate PPE (gloves, eye protection, high-visibility vest) is the first action to protect the
provider before patient contact. Standard precautions apply to all patients. Option A (triage)
comes after PPE and scene size-up. Option C occurs after PPE. Option D may be needed but not
before self-protection.
Q2: The primary purpose of the EMS system is to:
A. Provide advanced life support to all patients
B. Deliver rapid response, appropriate care, and transport to definitive care [CORRECT]
C. Replace hospital emergency departments
D. Generate revenue for the community
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The EMS system is designed to provide rapid response, appropriate prehospital care,
and timely transport to definitive care facilities. EMTs provide basic life support; ALS is an
extension. EMS does not replace EDs (C) or exist for revenue generation (D).
Q3: An EMT is exposed to potentially infectious blood during patient care. Which document
outlines the employer's responsibilities for post-exposure evaluation?
A. The EMS protocol manual
,2
B. The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard (29 CFR 1910.1030) [CORRECT]
C. The HIPAA Privacy Rule
D. The EMT Scope of Practice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires employers to provide post-exposure
evaluation and follow-up at no cost to the employee. This includes risk assessment, testing, and
prophylaxis if indicated. HIPAA (C) addresses privacy; Scope of Practice (D) defines
procedures.
Q4: Which of the following is an example of a qualitative vital sign?
A. Blood pressure
B. Heart rate
C. Level of consciousness [CORRECT]
D. Respiratory rate
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Qualitative signs are descriptive and subjective (AVPU, pain description, skin color).
Quantitative signs are measurable numerically (blood pressure, heart rate, respiratory rate,
SpO2). Level of consciousness requires descriptive assessment (Alert, Verbal, Pain,
Unresponsive).
Q5: The EMT's scope of practice is defined by:
A. The medical director only
B. State laws, regulations, and local medical direction [CORRECT]
C. The EMT textbook
D. Hospital protocols only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Scope of practice is legally defined by state statutes and administrative rules, then
operationally defined by local medical direction and protocols. Medical directors (A) work
within state frameworks. Textbooks (C) educate but don't authorize. Hospitals (D) don't define
prehospital scope.
Q6: An EMT is off-duty and encounters a motor vehicle collision. They have no equipment. The
EMT should:
,3
A. Drive away to avoid liability
B. Provide care to the level of their training and available resources [CORRECT]
C. Wait for the ambulance to arrive before acting
D. Only call 911 but not approach
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: EMTs have an ethical duty to act, providing care within their training and available
resources. Good Samaritan laws generally protect off-duty providers acting in good faith.
Options A, C, and D represent abandonment and failure to act.
Q7: Which mode of pathogen transmission involves contact with contaminated objects or
surfaces?
A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Indirect contact transmission [CORRECT]
D. Vector-borne transmission
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Indirect contact (fomite) transmission occurs through contact with contaminated
objects (bed rails, equipment). Droplet (A) involves respiratory droplets >5 microns. Airborne
(B) involves droplet nuclei <5 microns. Vector-borne (D) involves insects/animals.
Q8: The EMT is assessing a patient using the AVPU scale. The patient opens their eyes when
spoken to and answers questions appropriately. This is classified as:
A. Alert [CORRECT]
B. Verbal
C. Painful
D. Unresponsive
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: AVPU: Alert (awake, oriented, interactive), Verbal (responds to voice), Painful
(responds to painful stimulus), Unresponsive (no response). This patient is Alert—they open eyes
spontaneously or to voice and are oriented. Verbal (B) would require stimulus to respond.
Q9: Which of the following is the HIGHEST priority during scene size-up?
A. Patient care
, 4
B. Scene safety [CORRECT]
C. Transport decision
D. Documentation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Scene safety is always the first priority. The EMT cannot help patients if they become
a victim. This includes BSI (Body Substance Isolation), scene hazards (traffic, violence,
environmental), and number of patients. Patient care (A) follows safety.
Q10: An EMT is feeling overwhelmed by stress after multiple difficult calls. The BEST action is
to:
A. Ignore the feelings and continue working
B. Access employee assistance programs or peer support [CORRECT]
C. Self-medicate with alcohol
D. Quit the job immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: EMS providers experience high rates of PTSD and burnout. Accessing EAP, CISM
(Critical Incident Stress Management), or peer support is the healthy, professional response.
Ignoring stress (A) leads to deterioration. Self-medication (C) is dangerous. Quitting (D) may be
premature without support.
Q11: The term "medical direction" refers to:
A. The EMT making independent medical decisions
B. Oversight and authorization provided by a physician [CORRECT]
C. Hospital billing procedures
D. Patient self-transport decisions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Medical direction is the physician oversight that authorizes and supervises EMS
practice. It includes offline (protocols) and online (direct communication) direction. EMTs do
not practice independently (A).
Q12: Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?
A. Producing insulin
B. Protecting vital organs and providing structure [CORRECT]
