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Wilkes NSG 530 Exam 2 2026/2027 | Advanced Pathophysiology | Q&A | Cellular Injury, Genetics, Hypersensitivity & Fluid Balance | with Rationales | Grade A+

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD—This comprehensive study guide is specifically designed for Wilkes University graduate nursing students preparing for NSG 530 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam 2 for the 2026/2027 academic year. Based on verified exam materials from top-selling student resources, this resource contains expertly verified practice questions and 100% correct answers with detailed rationales to help you master core advanced pathophysiology concepts and achieve a top score (Grade A+). This comprehensive guide covers all major topics tested on NSG 530 Exam 2 : Cellular Biology & Injury : Hypoxic injury is the single most common cause of cellular injury, resulting from insufficient oxygen reaching tissues; ischemia is the most common cause of hypoxia . Na+/K+ ATPase pump failure during hypoxic injury leads to intracellular sodium accumulation and cellular swelling . Reperfusion injury occurs when oxygen is reintroduced to ischemic tissue, causing reactive oxygen species formation . Cellular adaptations include atrophy (decreased cell size), hypertrophy (increased cell size), hyperplasia (increased cell number), and metaplasia (reversible cell type change) . Fluid & Electrolyte Balance : Isotonic alterations occur when total body water changes are proportional to electrolyte changes . Hypertonic alterations (increased ECF osmolality) cause cells to shrink from water loss; hypotonic alterations cause cells to swell . Edema results from filtration exceeding reabsorption via five mechanisms: increased capillary hydrostatic pressure, decreased plasma oncotic pressure, increased capillary permeability, lymphatic obstruction, and increased tissue oncotic pressure . Hyperkalemia is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance in chronic renal failure due to impaired potassium excretion . Genetics & Chromosomal Disorders : Meiosis involves homologous chromosome pairing with crossing over, producing genetic recombination . Cri du Chat syndrome results from deletion of the short arm of chromosome 5, characterized by cat-like cry, microcephaly, and intellectual disability . Turner syndrome (45,XO) presents with short stature, webbed neck, widely spaced nipples, and sterility . Fragile X syndrome (CGG repeats 200) is the second most common genetic cause of intellectual disability . Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by CFTR gene mutation leading to thickened secretions . Duchenne muscular dystrophy is X-linked recessive with dystrophin deficiency causing progressive muscle degeneration . Huntington disease is autosomal dominant with trinucleotide repeat expansion and late onset (40s) . Hypersensitivity Reactions : Type I (IgE-mediated) involves IgE binding to mast cells, causing histamine release and anaphylaxis . Type II (cytotoxic) includes Graves disease (antibodies stimulate TSH receptor, causing hyperthyroidism), Rh incompatibility (phagocytosis in spleen), and transfusion reactions (alloimmunity) . Type III involves soluble antigen-antibody immune complexes depositing in tissues with complement activation . Type IV is T-cell mediated (delayed hypersensitivity) with Th1 cells attacking cellular targets . Immunoglobulins & Immune Response : IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin and crosses the placenta; IgE mediates allergic reactions; IgM is produced during primary response; IgA is most abundant in body secretions . Innate immunity provides first-line defense; adaptive immunity provides specific, memory-based responses . Neutrophils are the primary phagocytes in early inflammation; macrophages are longer-acting phagocytes; eosinophils defend against parasites; mast cells release histamine; natural killer cells eliminate virus-infected cells . Inflammation & Cell Death : IL-1 is the primary mediator of fever during inflammation . Diapedesis describes leukocyte movement through endothelial walls . Necrosis involves dissolution of nuclear material and release of cytoplasmic contents (CPK-MB, LDH1 elevation indicates myocardial cell necrosis) . Apoptosis is programmed cell death without inflammation . Epidemiology : Incidence measures new cases over time; prevalence measures total existing cases at a point in time . Etiology refers to the cause of disease . Secondary prevention includes screening programs (e.g., blood pressure screening in pregnant high school students) . Sample Questions Include : "A certain disease is currently found in 1 of every 10 people in the country and 1,000 people contract the disease yearly. The population is 4,500,000. Which statement is correct?" → The prevalence of the disease is 10% and the incidence is 0.02% (Prevalence = 1/10 = 10%; Incidence = 1,000/4,500,000 = 0.00022 = 0.02%) "When antibodies are formed against Rh antigens, how are blood cells destroyed?" → Phagocytosis in the spleen (Rh antibodies cause splenic macrophages to remove RBCs) "What is the most common cause of cellular injury?" → Hypoxia "What is the primary mechanism of cellular swelling during hypoxic injury?" → Failure of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump (intracellular sodium accumulation draws water into cell) "Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely in chronic renal failure?" → Hyperkalemia (impaired potassium excretion) "What level of prevention is a blood pressure screening program for pregnant high school students?" → Secondary prevention (early detection of disease) "What is the most common cause of tissue damage in type III hypersensitivity?" → Complement activation (immune complexes activate complement, causing inflammation) "Which type of immunity prevents a neonate from infection due to maternal antibodies in breast milk?" → Passive immunity (antibodies received from another source) "What finding indicates irreversible cell injury?" → Dissolution of nuclear material (necrosis with nuclear breakdown) All questions include complete rationales based on current evidence-based practice, pathophysiology standards, and Wilkes University curriculum requirements . DOCUMENT ACCESS: This study guide is available as an instant digital download (PDF) immediately upon purchase. Fully text-searchable, printable, and accessible anytime through your user account. 100% satisfaction guarantee. Trusted by thousands of Wilkes graduate nursing students for NSG 530 exam preparation and mastering advanced pathophysiology competencies .

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Institution
NSG530/NSG 530
Course
NSG530/NSG 530

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NSG 530 Exam 2 2026/2027 Advanced Pathophysiology Actual

Exam Questions Verified Answers Detailed Rationales Grade A



1. A patient was diagnosed as HIV positive several years ago. Which of the following

blood tests is most clinically useful for determining the stage and severity of her

disease?

A. Viral load

B. CD8+ cell counts

C. CD4+ cell counts

D. White blood cell count

Correct Answer: C. CD4+ cell counts

Rationale: CD4+ T-helper cell count is the primary indicator of immune function and

disease progression in HIV. Declining CD4+ counts correlate with advancing disease and

increased risk of opportunistic infections.



2. When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed

by the fetus, what type of immune reaction occurs? (transfusions, transplant tissues,

pregnancy)

,2|Page


A. Autoimmune

B. Alloimmune

C. Hypersensitivity

D. Immunodeficiency

Correct Answer: B. Alloimmune

Rationale: Alloimmune reactions occur when the immune system reacts against

antigens from another individual of the same species. This includes transfusion

reactions, transplant rejection, and maternal-fetal incompatibility (e.g., Rh disease).



3. A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He begins itching and

develops pains, swelling, redness and respiratory difficulties. He is suffering from:

A. Serum sickness

B. Contact dermatitis

C. Anaphylaxis

D. Urticaria

Correct Answer: C. Anaphylaxis

Rationale: Anaphylaxis is a severe, life-threatening type I hypersensitivity reaction

characterized by itching, urticaria, angioedema, and respiratory distress. Bee stings are a

common trigger.

,3|Page




4. When a patient presents at the ED for an allergic reaction, the nurse recognizes the

most severe consequence of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is:

A. Urticaria

B. Angioedema

C. Anaphylaxis

D. Bronchospasm

Correct Answer: C. Anaphylaxis

Rationale: Anaphylaxis is the most severe and potentially fatal manifestation of type I

hypersensitivity, involving systemic vasodilation, increased capillary permeability, and

bronchoconstriction that can lead to cardiovascular collapse and respiratory failure.



5. A nurse recalls that an example of an immune-complex-mediated disease is:

A. Anaphylaxis

B. Serum sickness

C. Contact dermatitis

D. Allergic rhinitis

Correct Answer: B. Serum sickness

, 4|Page


Rationale: Serum sickness is a type III hypersensitivity reaction caused by deposition of

circulating immune complexes in tissues, leading to inflammation and tissue damage.



6. When a nurse cares for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), the

nurse remembers this disease is an example of:

A. Alloimmunity

B. Immunodeficiency

C. Autoimmunity

D. Hypersensitivity

Correct Answer: C. Autoimmunity

Rationale: SLE is an autoimmune disease characterized by a disturbance in immunologic

tolerance of self-antigens, leading to production of autoantibodies and systemic

inflammation.



7. A 30-year-old female c/o fatigue, arthritis, rash and changes in urine color.

Laboratory testing reveals anemia, lymphopenia and kidney inflammation. Assuming a

diagnosis of SLE, which of the following is also likely to be present?

A. Autoantibodies

B. Hyperalbuminemia

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