WGU D345 NURS 6438 Psychopharmacology Comprehensive
Final OA ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS LATEST UPDATE THIS YEAR – JUST RELEASED
Brief Exam Coverage
1. Principles of psychopharmacology and neurotransmitters
2. Pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics in psychiatric medications
3. Antidepressants: SSRIs, SNRIs, TCAs, MAOIs, atypicals
4. Antipsychotics: first-generation vs second-generation, uses, and adverse effects
5. Mood stabilizers: lithium, valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine
6. Anxiolytics, sedative-hypnotics, and sleep agents
7. ADHD medications and stimulant/nonstimulant therapy
8. Medication selection by diagnosis, symptom profile, age, and comorbidities
9. Side effects, black box warnings, interactions, contraindications, and monitoring
10. Patient education, adherence, safety, and treatment evaluation
25 Original Practice MCQs
1.
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A patient taking phenelzine asks which over-the-counter medication should be avoided unless
specifically approved by the prescriber. Which option is most concerning?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Pseudoephedrine
D. Psyllium
Answer: C
Rationale: MAOIs such as phenelzine can interact dangerously with sympathomimetics like
pseudoephedrine and may precipitate hypertensive crisis.
2.
Which laboratory value is most important to monitor regularly in a patient receiving lithium
therapy?
A. Serum sodium only
B. Thyroid and renal function
C. Hemoglobin A1c only
D. Platelet count only
Answer: B
Rationale: Lithium can affect thyroid and kidney function, so ongoing TSH and renal monitoring
is essential, along with serum lithium levels.
3.
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A patient on sertraline develops agitation, diaphoresis, tremor, hyperreflexia, and diarrhea after
starting another medication. Which condition should the clinician suspect first?
A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
B. Serotonin syndrome
C. Lithium toxicity
D. Anticholinergic toxicity
Answer: B
Rationale: The combination of autonomic instability, neuromuscular hyperactivity, and GI
symptoms is classic for serotonin syndrome.
4.
Which antipsychotic adverse effect is most strongly associated with clozapine?
A. Agranulocytosis
B. Ototoxicity
C. Pancreatitis
D. Nephrolithiasis
Answer: A
Rationale: Clozapine carries a serious risk of agranulocytosis, requiring ANC monitoring.
5.
A patient with bipolar disorder presents with acute mania and severe agitation. Which
medication class is commonly used for rapid stabilization?
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A. Cholinesterase inhibitors
B. Mood stabilizers and/or antipsychotics
C. SSRIs alone
D. Beta blockers alone
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute mania is commonly treated with mood stabilizers, second-generation
antipsychotics, or both depending on severity.
6.
Which statement best distinguishes first-generation from second-generation antipsychotics?
A. First-generation agents have no dopamine effects
B. Second-generation agents are never used for bipolar disorder
C. First-generation agents generally carry higher risk of extrapyramidal symptoms
D. Second-generation agents do not cause metabolic effects
Answer: C
Rationale: FGAs are more strongly associated with EPS, whereas many SGAs are associated with
metabolic adverse effects.
7.
A patient taking fluoxetine reports sexual dysfunction. Which response is most appropriate?
A. Tell the patient to stop the medication immediately
B. Acknowledge this is a common SSRI adverse effect and assess severity and treatment options