OB/Pediatric EMT Fisdap 2025/2026 Complete
Study Guide | Obstetric and Pediatric
Emergency Medical Technician Exam Prep |
Verified Practice Questions, Maternal and
Neonatal Assessment, Pediatric Patient Care,
Obstetric Emergencies, EMS Protocols,
Clinical Scenario-Based Training, Vital Signs
Interpretation, Pharmacology Essentials,
Airway Management, Trauma Response,
Documentation Standards, and Step-by-Step
Fisdap Exam Solutions for EMT Students and
Professionals
Question 1: During the second stage of labor, which finding indicates that delivery is imminent?
A. Regular contractions occurring every 10 minutes
B. The mother reports feeling pressure in her lower back
C. The infant's head is visible at the vaginal opening (crowning)
D. The amniotic sac has just ruptured
CORRECT ANSWER: C. The infant's head is visible at the vaginal opening (crowning)
RATIONALE: The second stage of labor begins with full cervical dilation and ends with delivery of the
infant. Crowning, when the infant's head is visible at the vaginal opening and does not recede between
contractions, is the definitive sign that delivery is imminent and the EMT should prepare for immediate
birth assistance. While back pressure and rupture of membranes are important labor signs, they do not
specifically indicate that birth is about to occur.
Question 2: A newborn is assessed at one minute after birth and has a heart rate of 110, strong cry,
active movement of extremities, pink body with blue extremities, and grimaces when stimulated.
What is the APGAR score?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 8
RATIONALE: APGAR scoring evaluates Appearance (1 point for acrocyanosis), Pulse (2 points for >100
bpm), Grimace (1 point for grimace), Activity (2 points for active motion), and Respiration (2 points for
strong cry). This newborn scores: Appearance 1 + Pulse 2 + Grimace 1 + Activity 2 + Respiration 2 = 8. An
APGAR of 7-10 at 1 minute indicates the newborn is in good condition and typically requires only routine
care.
,Question 3: Which position should be used for a pregnant patient in her third trimester who is
experiencing hypotension during transport?
A. Supine with legs elevated
B. Left lateral recumbent position
C. Semi-Fowler's position
D. Trendelenburg position
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Left lateral recumbent position
RATIONALE: In late pregnancy, the gravid uterus can compress the inferior vena cava when the patient
is supine, reducing venous return and causing supine hypotensive syndrome. Placing the patient in the
left lateral recumbent position relieves this compression, improves cardiac output, and restores blood
pressure. This positioning is a critical intervention for hypotensive pregnant patients in the third
trimester.
Question 4: A 28-week pregnant patient presents with severe headache, visual disturbances, facial
edema, and blood pressure of 168/110 mmHg. Which condition should the EMT suspect?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Placenta previa
C. Preeclampsia
D. Ectopic pregnancy
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Preeclampsia
RATIONALE: Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension (≥140/90 mmHg) after 20 weeks gestation
plus proteinuria or signs of end-organ dysfunction such as headache, visual changes, or edema. This
patient's presentation with severe hypertension, headache, visual disturbances, and edema is classic for
preeclampsia, a potentially life-threatening condition requiring immediate transport and medical
management to prevent progression to eclampsia (seizures).
Question 5: During delivery, the umbilical cord is noted protruding from the vagina ahead of the
presenting part. What is the EMT's immediate action?
A. Gently push the cord back into the vagina
B. Place the mother in knee-chest position and administer high-flow oxygen
C. Clamp and cut the cord immediately
D. Encourage the mother to push to expedite delivery
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Place the mother in knee-chest position and administer high-flow oxygen
RATIONALE: A prolapsed umbilical cord is an obstetric emergency where the cord precedes the fetus
and can become compressed, compromising fetal oxygenation. The knee-chest or Trendelenburg
position uses gravity to relieve pressure on the cord. High-flow oxygen improves maternal and fetal
oxygenation. Never push the cord back in, as this can cause further compression or trauma. Rapid
transport with continuous monitoring is essential.
,Question 6: Which assessment finding in a newborn indicates the need for immediate positive-
pressure ventilation?
A. Heart rate of 95 beats per minute with spontaneous respirations
B. Central cyanosis with heart rate of 110 and weak cry
C. Apnea with heart rate of 70 beats per minute
D. Acrocyanosis with heart rate of 140 and strong cry
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Apnea with heart rate of 70 beats per minute
RATIONALE: Neonatal resuscitation guidelines indicate that positive-pressure ventilation should be
initiated if a newborn is apneic or gasping, or if the heart rate is below 100 bpm despite stimulation. A
heart rate of 70 with apnea signifies significant respiratory depression requiring immediate ventilatory
support. Central cyanosis alone may improve with supplemental oxygen, but apnea with bradycardia
requires active intervention.
Question 7: A patient in labor reports her water broke 18 hours ago, and she now has fever, uterine
tenderness, and foul-smelling amniotic fluid. Which complication should the EMT suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Chorioamnionitis
C. Uterine rupture
D. Abruptio placentae
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Chorioamnionitis
RATIONALE: Chorioamnionitis is an intra-amniotic infection typically occurring after prolonged rupture
of membranes (>18 hours). Classic signs include maternal fever, uterine tenderness, foul-smelling
amniotic fluid, and fetal tachycardia. This is a serious infection requiring prompt antibiotic therapy and
delivery. EMTs should recognize these signs, provide supportive care, and ensure rapid transport to a
facility capable of managing maternal and neonatal sepsis.
Question 8: Which finding is most indicative of placenta previa in a third-trimester pregnant patient?
A. Sudden, severe abdominal pain with rigid uterus
B. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
C. Dark red vaginal bleeding with uterine contractions
D. Vaginal bleeding following trauma with abdominal tenderness
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
RATIONALE: Placenta previa occurs when the placenta implants over or near the cervical os. The
hallmark sign is painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester, often without
uterine contractions or abdominal pain. This contrasts with abruptio placentae, which typically presents
with painful, dark red bleeding and a tender, rigid uterus. Any third-trimester bleeding requires
immediate transport and avoidance of vaginal examination.
Question 9: A newborn is delivered with thick, greenish amniotic fluid noted. The infant is limp,
apneic, and has a heart rate of 80. What is the priority intervention?
, A. Suction the mouth and nose with a bulb syringe
B. Provide positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask
C. Clamp and cut the umbilical cord immediately
D. Dry and stimulate the infant vigorously
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Provide positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask
RATIONALE: Meconium-stained amniotic fluid with a depressed newborn (apnea, bradycardia <100
bpm) indicates meconium aspiration syndrome requiring immediate resuscitation. Current neonatal
guidelines prioritize establishing effective ventilation over routine suctioning. Positive-pressure
ventilation with a bag-valve mask should be initiated immediately for apneic infants or those with heart
rate <100 bpm, regardless of meconium presence.
Question 10: Which statement by a pregnant patient suggests she is experiencing Braxton Hicks
contractions rather than true labor?
A. "The contractions are getting stronger and closer together."
B. "The pain starts in my back and moves to my front."
C. "The contractions stop when I change position or walk around."
D. "I feel pressure in my pelvis and an urge to push."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. The contractions stop when I change position or walk around.
RATIONALE: Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular, non-progressive "practice" contractions that
often resolve with position changes, hydration, or rest. True labor contractions become progressively
stronger, longer, and closer together regardless of activity. Recognizing this distinction helps EMTs
determine if transport for imminent delivery is necessary or if the patient may benefit from comfort
measures and monitoring.
Question 11: A 34-week pregnant patient is involved in a motor vehicle collision. She is restrained,
alert, and complains of mild abdominal pain. Vital signs are stable. What is the EMT's priority action?
A. Administer high-flow oxygen and prepare for immediate delivery
B. Place the patient supine for full spinal immobilization
C. Tilt the backboard 15-30 degrees to the left during immobilization
D. Perform a rapid vaginal examination to assess for bleeding
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Tilt the backboard 15-30 degrees to the left during immobilization
RATIONALE: Pregnant trauma patients require spinal immobilization when indicated, but supine
positioning can cause aortocaval compression. Tilting the backboard to the left (or placing a wedge
under the right hip) displaces the uterus off the inferior vena cava, maintaining venous return and
cardiac output. This simple intervention prevents supine hypotensive syndrome while maintaining spinal
precautions.
Question 12: Which newborn assessment finding requires immediate intervention during the initial
newborn assessment?
Study Guide | Obstetric and Pediatric
Emergency Medical Technician Exam Prep |
Verified Practice Questions, Maternal and
Neonatal Assessment, Pediatric Patient Care,
Obstetric Emergencies, EMS Protocols,
Clinical Scenario-Based Training, Vital Signs
Interpretation, Pharmacology Essentials,
Airway Management, Trauma Response,
Documentation Standards, and Step-by-Step
Fisdap Exam Solutions for EMT Students and
Professionals
Question 1: During the second stage of labor, which finding indicates that delivery is imminent?
A. Regular contractions occurring every 10 minutes
B. The mother reports feeling pressure in her lower back
C. The infant's head is visible at the vaginal opening (crowning)
D. The amniotic sac has just ruptured
CORRECT ANSWER: C. The infant's head is visible at the vaginal opening (crowning)
RATIONALE: The second stage of labor begins with full cervical dilation and ends with delivery of the
infant. Crowning, when the infant's head is visible at the vaginal opening and does not recede between
contractions, is the definitive sign that delivery is imminent and the EMT should prepare for immediate
birth assistance. While back pressure and rupture of membranes are important labor signs, they do not
specifically indicate that birth is about to occur.
Question 2: A newborn is assessed at one minute after birth and has a heart rate of 110, strong cry,
active movement of extremities, pink body with blue extremities, and grimaces when stimulated.
What is the APGAR score?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 8
RATIONALE: APGAR scoring evaluates Appearance (1 point for acrocyanosis), Pulse (2 points for >100
bpm), Grimace (1 point for grimace), Activity (2 points for active motion), and Respiration (2 points for
strong cry). This newborn scores: Appearance 1 + Pulse 2 + Grimace 1 + Activity 2 + Respiration 2 = 8. An
APGAR of 7-10 at 1 minute indicates the newborn is in good condition and typically requires only routine
care.
,Question 3: Which position should be used for a pregnant patient in her third trimester who is
experiencing hypotension during transport?
A. Supine with legs elevated
B. Left lateral recumbent position
C. Semi-Fowler's position
D. Trendelenburg position
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Left lateral recumbent position
RATIONALE: In late pregnancy, the gravid uterus can compress the inferior vena cava when the patient
is supine, reducing venous return and causing supine hypotensive syndrome. Placing the patient in the
left lateral recumbent position relieves this compression, improves cardiac output, and restores blood
pressure. This positioning is a critical intervention for hypotensive pregnant patients in the third
trimester.
Question 4: A 28-week pregnant patient presents with severe headache, visual disturbances, facial
edema, and blood pressure of 168/110 mmHg. Which condition should the EMT suspect?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Placenta previa
C. Preeclampsia
D. Ectopic pregnancy
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Preeclampsia
RATIONALE: Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension (≥140/90 mmHg) after 20 weeks gestation
plus proteinuria or signs of end-organ dysfunction such as headache, visual changes, or edema. This
patient's presentation with severe hypertension, headache, visual disturbances, and edema is classic for
preeclampsia, a potentially life-threatening condition requiring immediate transport and medical
management to prevent progression to eclampsia (seizures).
Question 5: During delivery, the umbilical cord is noted protruding from the vagina ahead of the
presenting part. What is the EMT's immediate action?
A. Gently push the cord back into the vagina
B. Place the mother in knee-chest position and administer high-flow oxygen
C. Clamp and cut the cord immediately
D. Encourage the mother to push to expedite delivery
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Place the mother in knee-chest position and administer high-flow oxygen
RATIONALE: A prolapsed umbilical cord is an obstetric emergency where the cord precedes the fetus
and can become compressed, compromising fetal oxygenation. The knee-chest or Trendelenburg
position uses gravity to relieve pressure on the cord. High-flow oxygen improves maternal and fetal
oxygenation. Never push the cord back in, as this can cause further compression or trauma. Rapid
transport with continuous monitoring is essential.
,Question 6: Which assessment finding in a newborn indicates the need for immediate positive-
pressure ventilation?
A. Heart rate of 95 beats per minute with spontaneous respirations
B. Central cyanosis with heart rate of 110 and weak cry
C. Apnea with heart rate of 70 beats per minute
D. Acrocyanosis with heart rate of 140 and strong cry
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Apnea with heart rate of 70 beats per minute
RATIONALE: Neonatal resuscitation guidelines indicate that positive-pressure ventilation should be
initiated if a newborn is apneic or gasping, or if the heart rate is below 100 bpm despite stimulation. A
heart rate of 70 with apnea signifies significant respiratory depression requiring immediate ventilatory
support. Central cyanosis alone may improve with supplemental oxygen, but apnea with bradycardia
requires active intervention.
Question 7: A patient in labor reports her water broke 18 hours ago, and she now has fever, uterine
tenderness, and foul-smelling amniotic fluid. Which complication should the EMT suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Chorioamnionitis
C. Uterine rupture
D. Abruptio placentae
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Chorioamnionitis
RATIONALE: Chorioamnionitis is an intra-amniotic infection typically occurring after prolonged rupture
of membranes (>18 hours). Classic signs include maternal fever, uterine tenderness, foul-smelling
amniotic fluid, and fetal tachycardia. This is a serious infection requiring prompt antibiotic therapy and
delivery. EMTs should recognize these signs, provide supportive care, and ensure rapid transport to a
facility capable of managing maternal and neonatal sepsis.
Question 8: Which finding is most indicative of placenta previa in a third-trimester pregnant patient?
A. Sudden, severe abdominal pain with rigid uterus
B. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
C. Dark red vaginal bleeding with uterine contractions
D. Vaginal bleeding following trauma with abdominal tenderness
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
RATIONALE: Placenta previa occurs when the placenta implants over or near the cervical os. The
hallmark sign is painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester, often without
uterine contractions or abdominal pain. This contrasts with abruptio placentae, which typically presents
with painful, dark red bleeding and a tender, rigid uterus. Any third-trimester bleeding requires
immediate transport and avoidance of vaginal examination.
Question 9: A newborn is delivered with thick, greenish amniotic fluid noted. The infant is limp,
apneic, and has a heart rate of 80. What is the priority intervention?
, A. Suction the mouth and nose with a bulb syringe
B. Provide positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask
C. Clamp and cut the umbilical cord immediately
D. Dry and stimulate the infant vigorously
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Provide positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask
RATIONALE: Meconium-stained amniotic fluid with a depressed newborn (apnea, bradycardia <100
bpm) indicates meconium aspiration syndrome requiring immediate resuscitation. Current neonatal
guidelines prioritize establishing effective ventilation over routine suctioning. Positive-pressure
ventilation with a bag-valve mask should be initiated immediately for apneic infants or those with heart
rate <100 bpm, regardless of meconium presence.
Question 10: Which statement by a pregnant patient suggests she is experiencing Braxton Hicks
contractions rather than true labor?
A. "The contractions are getting stronger and closer together."
B. "The pain starts in my back and moves to my front."
C. "The contractions stop when I change position or walk around."
D. "I feel pressure in my pelvis and an urge to push."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. The contractions stop when I change position or walk around.
RATIONALE: Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular, non-progressive "practice" contractions that
often resolve with position changes, hydration, or rest. True labor contractions become progressively
stronger, longer, and closer together regardless of activity. Recognizing this distinction helps EMTs
determine if transport for imminent delivery is necessary or if the patient may benefit from comfort
measures and monitoring.
Question 11: A 34-week pregnant patient is involved in a motor vehicle collision. She is restrained,
alert, and complains of mild abdominal pain. Vital signs are stable. What is the EMT's priority action?
A. Administer high-flow oxygen and prepare for immediate delivery
B. Place the patient supine for full spinal immobilization
C. Tilt the backboard 15-30 degrees to the left during immobilization
D. Perform a rapid vaginal examination to assess for bleeding
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Tilt the backboard 15-30 degrees to the left during immobilization
RATIONALE: Pregnant trauma patients require spinal immobilization when indicated, but supine
positioning can cause aortocaval compression. Tilting the backboard to the left (or placing a wedge
under the right hip) displaces the uterus off the inferior vena cava, maintaining venous return and
cardiac output. This simple intervention prevents supine hypotensive syndrome while maintaining spinal
precautions.
Question 12: Which newborn assessment finding requires immediate intervention during the initial
newborn assessment?
