NU 551 Final Exam |Pathophysiology
|Advanced Pathophysiology | All 160
Questions with Complete Solutions
and Accurate Answers Selected from
Past Papers | Already Graded A+
1. What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?
A) enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthase
B) influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production
C) edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production
D) potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure -
ANSWER-Ans: B- influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate
(ATP) production
2. Two "hits" are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because:
A) each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of
each gene, one from each parent
B) the first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause
abnormal tissue growth
C) tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits
to effect carcinogenesis
D) the first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation -
ANSWER-Ans: A- each allele must be altered and each person has two
copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent
3. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as:
A) Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues
B) The needs for lispro instead of regular insulin
C) An increase in glucagon secretion from (alpa) cells of the pancreas
D) The presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy (beta) cells in the
pancreas - ANSWER-Ans: A- resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissue
,4. The edema of the upper cervical cord after a spinal cord injury is considered
life threatening because of which possible outcome?
A) hypovolemic shock from blood loss during the injury
B) breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm
C) head injury that likely occurred during the injury
D) spinal shock immediately after the injury - ANSWER-Ans: B- breathing
difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm
5. What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral
hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?
A) high sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the
blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink
B) high sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the
brain cells, causing them to swell
C) high sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells,
which slows the synapses in the brain
D) high sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed
by water, causing the brain cells to swell - ANSWER-Ans: A- high sodium
in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels,
causing brain cells to shrink
6. Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:
A) adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling
B) the metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults
C) the rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults
D) the thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively -
ANSWER-Ans: A- adipose cells contain little water because fat is water
repelling
7. Which statement best describes a Schilling test?
A) administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its
excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency
B) measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for
hemolytic anemia
C) measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to
test for iron deficiency anemia
D) administration of folate and measurement in two hours of its level in a blood
sample to test for folic acid deficiency - ANSWER-Ans: A- administration
of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to
test for vitamin B12 deficiency
, 8. Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:
A) endogenous pyrogen acting directly on the hypothalamus
B) exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus
C) immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamus
D) cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus - ANSWER-Ans: A-
endogenous pyrogen acting directly on the hypothalamus
9. Mitochondria - ANSWER-Organelle that contains the code needed for
oxidative phosphorylation is:
A. Mitochondria
B. Lysosomes
C. Nucleus
D. Vacuoles
10.Apoptosis - ANSWER-Programmed cell death is an active process of
cellular self-destruction. It is also referred to as
A. Apoptosis
B. Necrosis
C. Metastatic calcification
D. Gangrene
11.Histones - ANSWER-The nucleolus is a small dense structure composed
mainly of RNA and cellular DNA. What causes the DNA to bind and fold
into chromosomes?
A. Amino acid sequences
B. Histones
C. Polymerase
D. Mirna
12.X-linked recessive disease - ANSWER-Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy is
never transmitted from father to son. It is a good example of
A. Sex-linked recessive disease
B. Autosomal dominant disease
C. X-linked recessive disease
D. Chromosome structure abnormality disease
13.Eosinophils - ANSWER-Which cell is the body's primary defense against
parasite invasion?
A. T lymphocytes
|Advanced Pathophysiology | All 160
Questions with Complete Solutions
and Accurate Answers Selected from
Past Papers | Already Graded A+
1. What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?
A) enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthase
B) influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production
C) edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production
D) potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure -
ANSWER-Ans: B- influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate
(ATP) production
2. Two "hits" are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because:
A) each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of
each gene, one from each parent
B) the first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause
abnormal tissue growth
C) tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits
to effect carcinogenesis
D) the first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation -
ANSWER-Ans: A- each allele must be altered and each person has two
copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent
3. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as:
A) Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues
B) The needs for lispro instead of regular insulin
C) An increase in glucagon secretion from (alpa) cells of the pancreas
D) The presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy (beta) cells in the
pancreas - ANSWER-Ans: A- resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissue
,4. The edema of the upper cervical cord after a spinal cord injury is considered
life threatening because of which possible outcome?
A) hypovolemic shock from blood loss during the injury
B) breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm
C) head injury that likely occurred during the injury
D) spinal shock immediately after the injury - ANSWER-Ans: B- breathing
difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm
5. What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral
hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?
A) high sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the
blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink
B) high sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the
brain cells, causing them to swell
C) high sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells,
which slows the synapses in the brain
D) high sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed
by water, causing the brain cells to swell - ANSWER-Ans: A- high sodium
in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels,
causing brain cells to shrink
6. Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:
A) adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling
B) the metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults
C) the rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults
D) the thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively -
ANSWER-Ans: A- adipose cells contain little water because fat is water
repelling
7. Which statement best describes a Schilling test?
A) administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its
excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency
B) measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for
hemolytic anemia
C) measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to
test for iron deficiency anemia
D) administration of folate and measurement in two hours of its level in a blood
sample to test for folic acid deficiency - ANSWER-Ans: A- administration
of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to
test for vitamin B12 deficiency
, 8. Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:
A) endogenous pyrogen acting directly on the hypothalamus
B) exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus
C) immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamus
D) cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus - ANSWER-Ans: A-
endogenous pyrogen acting directly on the hypothalamus
9. Mitochondria - ANSWER-Organelle that contains the code needed for
oxidative phosphorylation is:
A. Mitochondria
B. Lysosomes
C. Nucleus
D. Vacuoles
10.Apoptosis - ANSWER-Programmed cell death is an active process of
cellular self-destruction. It is also referred to as
A. Apoptosis
B. Necrosis
C. Metastatic calcification
D. Gangrene
11.Histones - ANSWER-The nucleolus is a small dense structure composed
mainly of RNA and cellular DNA. What causes the DNA to bind and fold
into chromosomes?
A. Amino acid sequences
B. Histones
C. Polymerase
D. Mirna
12.X-linked recessive disease - ANSWER-Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy is
never transmitted from father to son. It is a good example of
A. Sex-linked recessive disease
B. Autosomal dominant disease
C. X-linked recessive disease
D. Chromosome structure abnormality disease
13.Eosinophils - ANSWER-Which cell is the body's primary defense against
parasite invasion?
A. T lymphocytes
