OB/Pediatric EMT FISDAP Exam Study Guide – Complete
FISDAP OB and Pediatric Emergency Medical Technician
Practice Questions, Verified Answers & Rationales, EMT-B
Paramedic Obstetrics and Pediatric Patient Care Exam Prep
Resource
Question 1: Which of the following is the most common cause of third-trimester vaginal
bleeding in a pregnant patient without abdominal pain?
A. Placental abruption
B. Uterine rupture
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Placenta previa
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Placenta previa
Rationale: Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical
os, leading to painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. In contrast, placental abruption
typically presents with painful bleeding, uterine rupture is rare and associated with severe pain
and instability, and ectopic pregnancy usually manifests in the first trimester.
Question 2: A newborn has a heart rate of 80 beats per minute, is not breathing, and appears
pale and limp. What is the first action you should take during neonatal resuscitation?
A. Administer epinephrine
B. Begin chest compressions
C. Provide positive-pressure ventilation
D. Dry, warm, and stimulate the infant
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Provide positive-pressure ventilation
Rationale: According to Neonatal Resuscitation Program (NRP) guidelines, if a newborn is not
breathing or has a heart rate below 100 bpm, the immediate intervention is to provide positive-
pressure ventilation (PPV). Drying and stimulation are initial steps for vigorous newborns; chest
compressions and epinephrine are reserved for cases where PPV fails to increase the heart rate
above 60 bpm.
Question 3: During labor, a patient experiences a sudden onset of dyspnea, hypotension, and
cyanosis. Which condition should be suspected first?
A. Amniotic fluid embolism
B. Preeclampsia
C. Pulmonary embolism
,D. Uterine atony
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Amniotic fluid embolism
Rationale: Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but life-threatening obstetric emergency
characterized by sudden cardiovascular collapse, respiratory distress, and coagulopathy during
labor or shortly after delivery. While pulmonary embolism can present similarly, amniotic fluid
embolism is more acutely tied to obstetric events and progresses rapidly.
Question 4: What is the APGAR score of a newborn at 1 minute of life who has a heart rate of
110, is crying vigorously, has active motion, pink body with blue extremities, and grimaces to
stimulation?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 9
Rationale: The APGAR components are scored as follows: Heart rate >100 = 2; Respiratory
effort (crying) = 2; Muscle tone (active motion) = 2; Reflex irritability (grimace) = 1; Color (pink
body, blue extremities = acrocyanosis) = 1. Total = 2+2+2+1+1 = 8. Wait—this totals 8, not 9.
Correction: Grimacing is a weak response and scores 1, but vigorous cry implies strong reflex,
which may be scored as 2. However, standard scoring assigns cry under respiration, not reflex.
Re-evaluating: Reflex = grimace = 1; Color = 1. So total = 2+2+2+1+1 = 8. Therefore, correct
answer should be B. But based on common interpretation in many EMT curricula, vigorous cry
and movement often lead to a score of 9 if reflex is interpreted as strong. To avoid ambiguity,
let’s revise question slightly for clarity.
Wait—per strict NRP:
Heart rate >100 → 2
Respiratory effort: crying → 2
Muscle tone: active motion → 2
Reflex irritability: grimace → 1 (only cough/sneeze = 2)
Color: acrocyanosis → 1
Total = 8.
Thus, the correct answer is B. 8.
,But since the original question stated "grimaces," the accurate APGAR is 8. Therefore, I must
correct the question to align with standards.
Let me rephrase to ensure correctness:
Revised Question 4: What is the APGAR score of a newborn at 1 minute of life who has a heart
rate of 110, is crying vigorously, has active motion, is completely pink, and sneezes when
suctioned?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
CORRECT ANSWER: D. 10
Rationale: Each APGAR component scores 2: heart rate >100 (2), strong cry (2), active motion
(2), sneeze to stimulation (2), and completely pink (2). Total = 10, indicating a vigorous newborn
requiring no resuscitation.
Question 5: Which of the following best describes the definition of preeclampsia?
A. Hypertension with proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation
B. Seizures in a pregnant patient with hypertension
C. Vaginal bleeding with a tender uterus after 20 weeks
D. Gestational diabetes with elevated liver enzymes
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Hypertension with proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation
Rationale: Preeclampsia is defined as new-onset hypertension (systolic ≥140 mmHg or diastolic
≥90 mmHg) after 20 weeks of gestation in a previously normotensive woman, accompanied by
proteinuria or end-organ dysfunction. Eclampsia (option B) refers to seizures occurring in the
context of preeclampsia. Option C describes placental abruption, and option D is unrelated.
Question 6: You are assessing a 2-year-old child who is unresponsive and not breathing. After
ensuring scene safety and checking for responsiveness, what is your next step?
A. Attach an AED immediately
B. Begin chest compressions
C. Open the airway and give 2 rescue breaths
D. Call medical control for orders
, CORRECT ANSWER: C. Open the airway and give 2 rescue breaths
Rationale: For pediatric cardiac arrest, the American Heart Association recommends starting
with 2 rescue breaths after confirming unresponsiveness and absence of breathing, especially in
cases likely due to respiratory etiology (common in children). Chest compressions follow if
there is no pulse or if the child remains unresponsive after initial ventilations.
Question 7: A pregnant patient at 36 weeks gestation complains of severe headache, blurred
vision, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 168/102 mmHg. What condition is most likely?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Placenta previa
C. Preeclampsia
D. Hyperemesis gravidarum
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Preeclampsia
Rationale: The triad of hypertension, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain in the third
trimester strongly suggests preeclampsia, a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can
progress to eclampsia or HELLP syndrome if untreated. Gestational diabetes involves glucose
intolerance, placenta previa causes painless bleeding, and hyperemesis gravidarum is severe
nausea/vomiting in early pregnancy.
Question 8: What is the appropriate compression-to-ventilation ratio for a single rescuer
performing CPR on an infant?
A. 15:2
B. 30:1
C. 30:2
D. 15:1
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 30:2
Rationale: For a single rescuer performing CPR on an infant (or child), the recommended
compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30:2, consistent with adult guidelines. The 15:2 ratio is used
only when there are two healthcare providers performing CPR on an infant or child.
Question 9: Which sign is most indicative of imminent delivery in a pregnant patient?
A. Contractions every 10 minutes
B. Rupture of membranes
C. Crowning of the fetal head
FISDAP OB and Pediatric Emergency Medical Technician
Practice Questions, Verified Answers & Rationales, EMT-B
Paramedic Obstetrics and Pediatric Patient Care Exam Prep
Resource
Question 1: Which of the following is the most common cause of third-trimester vaginal
bleeding in a pregnant patient without abdominal pain?
A. Placental abruption
B. Uterine rupture
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Placenta previa
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Placenta previa
Rationale: Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical
os, leading to painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. In contrast, placental abruption
typically presents with painful bleeding, uterine rupture is rare and associated with severe pain
and instability, and ectopic pregnancy usually manifests in the first trimester.
Question 2: A newborn has a heart rate of 80 beats per minute, is not breathing, and appears
pale and limp. What is the first action you should take during neonatal resuscitation?
A. Administer epinephrine
B. Begin chest compressions
C. Provide positive-pressure ventilation
D. Dry, warm, and stimulate the infant
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Provide positive-pressure ventilation
Rationale: According to Neonatal Resuscitation Program (NRP) guidelines, if a newborn is not
breathing or has a heart rate below 100 bpm, the immediate intervention is to provide positive-
pressure ventilation (PPV). Drying and stimulation are initial steps for vigorous newborns; chest
compressions and epinephrine are reserved for cases where PPV fails to increase the heart rate
above 60 bpm.
Question 3: During labor, a patient experiences a sudden onset of dyspnea, hypotension, and
cyanosis. Which condition should be suspected first?
A. Amniotic fluid embolism
B. Preeclampsia
C. Pulmonary embolism
,D. Uterine atony
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Amniotic fluid embolism
Rationale: Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but life-threatening obstetric emergency
characterized by sudden cardiovascular collapse, respiratory distress, and coagulopathy during
labor or shortly after delivery. While pulmonary embolism can present similarly, amniotic fluid
embolism is more acutely tied to obstetric events and progresses rapidly.
Question 4: What is the APGAR score of a newborn at 1 minute of life who has a heart rate of
110, is crying vigorously, has active motion, pink body with blue extremities, and grimaces to
stimulation?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 9
Rationale: The APGAR components are scored as follows: Heart rate >100 = 2; Respiratory
effort (crying) = 2; Muscle tone (active motion) = 2; Reflex irritability (grimace) = 1; Color (pink
body, blue extremities = acrocyanosis) = 1. Total = 2+2+2+1+1 = 8. Wait—this totals 8, not 9.
Correction: Grimacing is a weak response and scores 1, but vigorous cry implies strong reflex,
which may be scored as 2. However, standard scoring assigns cry under respiration, not reflex.
Re-evaluating: Reflex = grimace = 1; Color = 1. So total = 2+2+2+1+1 = 8. Therefore, correct
answer should be B. But based on common interpretation in many EMT curricula, vigorous cry
and movement often lead to a score of 9 if reflex is interpreted as strong. To avoid ambiguity,
let’s revise question slightly for clarity.
Wait—per strict NRP:
Heart rate >100 → 2
Respiratory effort: crying → 2
Muscle tone: active motion → 2
Reflex irritability: grimace → 1 (only cough/sneeze = 2)
Color: acrocyanosis → 1
Total = 8.
Thus, the correct answer is B. 8.
,But since the original question stated "grimaces," the accurate APGAR is 8. Therefore, I must
correct the question to align with standards.
Let me rephrase to ensure correctness:
Revised Question 4: What is the APGAR score of a newborn at 1 minute of life who has a heart
rate of 110, is crying vigorously, has active motion, is completely pink, and sneezes when
suctioned?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
CORRECT ANSWER: D. 10
Rationale: Each APGAR component scores 2: heart rate >100 (2), strong cry (2), active motion
(2), sneeze to stimulation (2), and completely pink (2). Total = 10, indicating a vigorous newborn
requiring no resuscitation.
Question 5: Which of the following best describes the definition of preeclampsia?
A. Hypertension with proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation
B. Seizures in a pregnant patient with hypertension
C. Vaginal bleeding with a tender uterus after 20 weeks
D. Gestational diabetes with elevated liver enzymes
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Hypertension with proteinuria after 20 weeks of gestation
Rationale: Preeclampsia is defined as new-onset hypertension (systolic ≥140 mmHg or diastolic
≥90 mmHg) after 20 weeks of gestation in a previously normotensive woman, accompanied by
proteinuria or end-organ dysfunction. Eclampsia (option B) refers to seizures occurring in the
context of preeclampsia. Option C describes placental abruption, and option D is unrelated.
Question 6: You are assessing a 2-year-old child who is unresponsive and not breathing. After
ensuring scene safety and checking for responsiveness, what is your next step?
A. Attach an AED immediately
B. Begin chest compressions
C. Open the airway and give 2 rescue breaths
D. Call medical control for orders
, CORRECT ANSWER: C. Open the airway and give 2 rescue breaths
Rationale: For pediatric cardiac arrest, the American Heart Association recommends starting
with 2 rescue breaths after confirming unresponsiveness and absence of breathing, especially in
cases likely due to respiratory etiology (common in children). Chest compressions follow if
there is no pulse or if the child remains unresponsive after initial ventilations.
Question 7: A pregnant patient at 36 weeks gestation complains of severe headache, blurred
vision, and epigastric pain. Her blood pressure is 168/102 mmHg. What condition is most likely?
A. Gestational diabetes
B. Placenta previa
C. Preeclampsia
D. Hyperemesis gravidarum
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Preeclampsia
Rationale: The triad of hypertension, visual disturbances, and epigastric pain in the third
trimester strongly suggests preeclampsia, a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can
progress to eclampsia or HELLP syndrome if untreated. Gestational diabetes involves glucose
intolerance, placenta previa causes painless bleeding, and hyperemesis gravidarum is severe
nausea/vomiting in early pregnancy.
Question 8: What is the appropriate compression-to-ventilation ratio for a single rescuer
performing CPR on an infant?
A. 15:2
B. 30:1
C. 30:2
D. 15:1
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 30:2
Rationale: For a single rescuer performing CPR on an infant (or child), the recommended
compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30:2, consistent with adult guidelines. The 15:2 ratio is used
only when there are two healthcare providers performing CPR on an infant or child.
Question 9: Which sign is most indicative of imminent delivery in a pregnant patient?
A. Contractions every 10 minutes
B. Rupture of membranes
C. Crowning of the fetal head
