JONES & BARTLETT EMT EXAM 2026/2027 | ACTUAL TEST BANK |
VERIFIED Q&A | ALL SOLUTIONS | PASS GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED
Section: Airway, Respiration & Ventilation
Q1: You are treating a 58-year-old male with a history of COPD who presents with severe respiratory distress,
accessory muscle use, and an oxygen saturation of 82% on room air. He is alert but can only speak in one-
word sentences. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention?
A. Apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM
B. Begin positive pressure ventilation with a BVM
C. Apply a nasal cannula at 2-4 LPM
D. Assist the patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler [CORRECT^^]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
D is correct: This patient is in severe respiratory distress but is still alert and attempting to breathe. For the
COPD patient with bronchospasm, the first-line treatment is a bronchodilator (metered-dose inhaler or
small-volume nebulizer) to relieve the underlying cause. Positive pressure ventilation may become necessary
if the patient tires or deteriorates.
A is incorrect: While high-flow oxygen may seem appropriate, COPD patients can retain CO2, and a non-
rebreather may not address the bronchospasm causing the problem. Bronchodilation is the priority.
B is incorrect: BVM ventilation is indicated for inadequate breathing or respiratory arrest. This patient is
breathing, albeit with difficulty. Jumping to BVM without attempting pharmacological intervention is
premature.
C is incorrect: A nasal cannula at 2-4 LPM is insufficient for a patient with an SpO2 of 82%.
Q2: A 22-year-old male was involved in a house fire and is now coughing, hoarse, and has soot in his mouth
and nose. His respiratory rate is 28, and his SpO2 is 94% on room air. What is your greatest concern for this
patient?
, JONES & BARTLETT EMT EXAM 2026/2027 | ACTUAL TEST BANK |
VERIFIED Q&A | ALL SOLUTIONS | PASS GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED
A. Carbon monoxide poisoning
B. Cyanide toxicity
C. Upper airway obstruction due to edema [CORRECT^^]
D. Hypoxia from inhalation injury
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
C is correct: Hoarseness and soot in the airway are signs of upper airway thermal injury. Edema can develop
rapidly, leading to complete airway obstruction. This patient requires rapid transport and advanced airway
management, even with a normal SpO2.
A is incorrect: Carbon monoxide poisoning is a concern in fire victims, but pulse oximetry is inaccurate in CO
poisoning (reads falsely high). While possible, the immediate life threat is airway edema.
B is incorrect: Cyanide toxicity is a concern in smoke inhalation, but the symptoms (altered mental status,
seizures, cardiovascular collapse) are not yet present.
D is incorrect: The patient's SpO2 is 94%, indicating relatively preserved oxygenation at this moment, but the
airway threat is imminent.
Q3: Which of the following is the correct rate and volume for delivering ventilations to an adult patient in
cardiac arrest with an advanced airway in place (according to 2026 AHA guidelines)?
A. 10 breaths/min, 500 mL volume
B. 8-10 breaths/min, 600 mL volume [CORRECT^^]
C. 12-16 breaths/min, 400 mL volume
D. 6 breaths/min, 800 mL volume
, JONES & BARTLETT EMT EXAM 2026/2027 | ACTUAL TEST BANK |
VERIFIED Q&A | ALL SOLUTIONS | PASS GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
B is correct: The 2026 AHA guidelines continue to emphasize avoiding hyperventilation in cardiac arrest.
Once an advanced airway is placed, ventilations should be delivered at a rate of 8-10 breaths per minute
(approximately one breath every 6-8 seconds) with a volume sufficient to produce visible chest rise
(approximately 600 mL in an average adult).
A is incorrect: 10 breaths/min is within the range, but 500 mL may be insufficient for some adults.
C is incorrect: 12-16 breaths/min is too fast and will cause hyperventilation, decreasing cardiac output due to
increased intrathoracic pressure.
D is incorrect: 6 breaths/min is too slow and may not provide adequate minute ventilation.
Section: Cardiology & Resuscitation (2026 AHA Updates)
Q4: During a cardiac arrest resuscitation, you are providing ventilations with a bag-valve-mask. The
compressor pauses after 2 minutes to allow for rhythm analysis. The AED advises "no shock advised." What is
the next immediate step?
A. Check for a pulse
B. Resume chest compressions immediately [CORRECT^^]
C. Re-analyze the rhythm
D. Insert an oral airway
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
, JONES & BARTLETT EMT EXAM 2026/2027 | ACTUAL TEST BANK |
VERIFIED Q&A | ALL SOLUTIONS | PASS GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED
B is correct: According to the 2026 AHA update, the emphasis remains on minimizing pauses in chest
compressions. If the AED advises "no shock," you should immediately resume CPR, starting with chest
compressions, for another 2-minute cycle before re-analyzing or checking for pulse.
A is incorrect: Pulse checks should only occur if there is signs of life (movement, purposeful breathing).
Routine pulse checks after a "no shock" advisory delay the resumption of compressions.
C is incorrect: Re-analyzing immediately wastes time. The AED will advise re-analysis after 2 minutes of CPR.
D is incorrect: While an airway may eventually be placed, it is not the immediate next step following a "no
shock" advisory.
Q5: A 67-year-old female presents with sudden onset of "the worst headache of my life," nausea, and
confusion. Her blood pressure is 210/110 mmHg. Which of the following is the most likely underlying
condition?
A. Ischemic stroke
B. Hypertensive emergency
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage [CORRECT^^]
D. Migraine headache
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
C is correct: The classic presentation of a subarachnoid hemorrhage (often from a ruptured aneurysm) is the
sudden onset of a severe, explosive headache ("thunderclap headache") often accompanied by nausea,
vomiting, and altered mental status. Hypertension is a common finding due to increased intracranial pressure.
A is incorrect: Ischemic strokes typically present with focal neurological deficits (weakness on one side, facial
droop) rather than an isolated severe headache as the primary symptom.
VERIFIED Q&A | ALL SOLUTIONS | PASS GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED
Section: Airway, Respiration & Ventilation
Q1: You are treating a 58-year-old male with a history of COPD who presents with severe respiratory distress,
accessory muscle use, and an oxygen saturation of 82% on room air. He is alert but can only speak in one-
word sentences. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention?
A. Apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 LPM
B. Begin positive pressure ventilation with a BVM
C. Apply a nasal cannula at 2-4 LPM
D. Assist the patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler [CORRECT^^]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
D is correct: This patient is in severe respiratory distress but is still alert and attempting to breathe. For the
COPD patient with bronchospasm, the first-line treatment is a bronchodilator (metered-dose inhaler or
small-volume nebulizer) to relieve the underlying cause. Positive pressure ventilation may become necessary
if the patient tires or deteriorates.
A is incorrect: While high-flow oxygen may seem appropriate, COPD patients can retain CO2, and a non-
rebreather may not address the bronchospasm causing the problem. Bronchodilation is the priority.
B is incorrect: BVM ventilation is indicated for inadequate breathing or respiratory arrest. This patient is
breathing, albeit with difficulty. Jumping to BVM without attempting pharmacological intervention is
premature.
C is incorrect: A nasal cannula at 2-4 LPM is insufficient for a patient with an SpO2 of 82%.
Q2: A 22-year-old male was involved in a house fire and is now coughing, hoarse, and has soot in his mouth
and nose. His respiratory rate is 28, and his SpO2 is 94% on room air. What is your greatest concern for this
patient?
, JONES & BARTLETT EMT EXAM 2026/2027 | ACTUAL TEST BANK |
VERIFIED Q&A | ALL SOLUTIONS | PASS GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED
A. Carbon monoxide poisoning
B. Cyanide toxicity
C. Upper airway obstruction due to edema [CORRECT^^]
D. Hypoxia from inhalation injury
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
C is correct: Hoarseness and soot in the airway are signs of upper airway thermal injury. Edema can develop
rapidly, leading to complete airway obstruction. This patient requires rapid transport and advanced airway
management, even with a normal SpO2.
A is incorrect: Carbon monoxide poisoning is a concern in fire victims, but pulse oximetry is inaccurate in CO
poisoning (reads falsely high). While possible, the immediate life threat is airway edema.
B is incorrect: Cyanide toxicity is a concern in smoke inhalation, but the symptoms (altered mental status,
seizures, cardiovascular collapse) are not yet present.
D is incorrect: The patient's SpO2 is 94%, indicating relatively preserved oxygenation at this moment, but the
airway threat is imminent.
Q3: Which of the following is the correct rate and volume for delivering ventilations to an adult patient in
cardiac arrest with an advanced airway in place (according to 2026 AHA guidelines)?
A. 10 breaths/min, 500 mL volume
B. 8-10 breaths/min, 600 mL volume [CORRECT^^]
C. 12-16 breaths/min, 400 mL volume
D. 6 breaths/min, 800 mL volume
, JONES & BARTLETT EMT EXAM 2026/2027 | ACTUAL TEST BANK |
VERIFIED Q&A | ALL SOLUTIONS | PASS GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
B is correct: The 2026 AHA guidelines continue to emphasize avoiding hyperventilation in cardiac arrest.
Once an advanced airway is placed, ventilations should be delivered at a rate of 8-10 breaths per minute
(approximately one breath every 6-8 seconds) with a volume sufficient to produce visible chest rise
(approximately 600 mL in an average adult).
A is incorrect: 10 breaths/min is within the range, but 500 mL may be insufficient for some adults.
C is incorrect: 12-16 breaths/min is too fast and will cause hyperventilation, decreasing cardiac output due to
increased intrathoracic pressure.
D is incorrect: 6 breaths/min is too slow and may not provide adequate minute ventilation.
Section: Cardiology & Resuscitation (2026 AHA Updates)
Q4: During a cardiac arrest resuscitation, you are providing ventilations with a bag-valve-mask. The
compressor pauses after 2 minutes to allow for rhythm analysis. The AED advises "no shock advised." What is
the next immediate step?
A. Check for a pulse
B. Resume chest compressions immediately [CORRECT^^]
C. Re-analyze the rhythm
D. Insert an oral airway
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
, JONES & BARTLETT EMT EXAM 2026/2027 | ACTUAL TEST BANK |
VERIFIED Q&A | ALL SOLUTIONS | PASS GUARANTEED - A+ GRADED
B is correct: According to the 2026 AHA update, the emphasis remains on minimizing pauses in chest
compressions. If the AED advises "no shock," you should immediately resume CPR, starting with chest
compressions, for another 2-minute cycle before re-analyzing or checking for pulse.
A is incorrect: Pulse checks should only occur if there is signs of life (movement, purposeful breathing).
Routine pulse checks after a "no shock" advisory delay the resumption of compressions.
C is incorrect: Re-analyzing immediately wastes time. The AED will advise re-analysis after 2 minutes of CPR.
D is incorrect: While an airway may eventually be placed, it is not the immediate next step following a "no
shock" advisory.
Q5: A 67-year-old female presents with sudden onset of "the worst headache of my life," nausea, and
confusion. Her blood pressure is 210/110 mmHg. Which of the following is the most likely underlying
condition?
A. Ischemic stroke
B. Hypertensive emergency
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage [CORRECT^^]
D. Migraine headache
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
C is correct: The classic presentation of a subarachnoid hemorrhage (often from a ruptured aneurysm) is the
sudden onset of a severe, explosive headache ("thunderclap headache") often accompanied by nausea,
vomiting, and altered mental status. Hypertension is a common finding due to increased intracranial pressure.
A is incorrect: Ischemic strokes typically present with focal neurological deficits (weakness on one side, facial
droop) rather than an isolated severe headache as the primary symptom.
