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Ms. Lee is a 33-year-old G1P1 who had labor induction for
preeclampsia with severe features, resulting in a vaginal
delivery 3 hours ago. She remains on magnesium sulfate IV.
Her BPs have remained in the 150s/90s mm Hg on oral labetalol,
and her lab exams were all within normal limits except
creatinine, which is 1.5mg/dL. She reports that she is short of
breath and feels chest heaviness. She then becomes
unresponsive. What are the correct actions at this time?
Check creatinine immediately IV
labetalol immediately
*Calcium gluconate immediately
*Stop magnesium sulfate
,A 30-year-old G2P1 at 36 weeks is diagnosed with mild
gestational hypertension (blood pressure range 140-150/90-
95 mm Hg), and close maternal and fetal outpatient monitoring
is initiated. If the patient presents 1 week later with a
persistent headache but no proteinuria, how would your
diagnosis change?
*Change the diagnosis to severe gestational hypertension.
Change the diagnosis to preeclampsia with severe features.
Change the diagnosis to preeclampsia without severe
features.
No change in diagnosis
,Hematologic abnormalities are common clinical
manifestations of preeclampsia and other hypertensive
disorders of pregnancy. Which of the following statements are
accurate?
$.
*Hemolysis can result when red blood cells pass through
vasoconstricted microvasculature and become fragmented.
*Thrombocytopenia can occur from the accelerated use of
platelets to form clots in damaged microvasculature.
, Which of the following are considered major
risk factors for the development of
preeclampsia?
Select 3 answers.
Chronic
hypertension
Caucasian race
Cigarette smoking
Multiple gestation
Antiphospholipid syndrome
Chronic htx, smoking, anti phospholipid