CERTPREPS - SSCP PRACTICE EXAM 4
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. A U.S.-based company is expanding its services to Canadian customers. What must
the company consider to comply with Canadian privacy regulations?
A. Apply the same U.S. privacy regulations to Canadian data for consistency.
B. Obtain explicit consent from Canadian customers before collecting their data.
C. Implement stricter data retention policies than those required by Canadian law.
D. Avoid collecting any personal information from Canadian customers to bypass
compliance. - Correct Answers -B. Obtain explicit consent from Canadian customers
before collecting their data.
Option (B) is correct because Canadian privacy laws, such as the Personal Information
Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA), require explicit consent for data
collection. Option (A) is incorrect as U.S. regulations may not meet Canadian legal
standards. Option (C) is not necessary unless the company's internal policies require
stricter measures. Option (D) is impractical and counterproductive as it limits business
operations in Canada.
2. During a routine audit, it is discovered that several systems are running outdated
software versions. What role does configuration management play in addressing this
issue effectively?
A. Identifying the outdated software and triggering updates.
B. Backing up the data before updating software.
C. Notifying users about the outdated software.
D. Documenting the audit results for future reference. - Correct Answers -A. Identifying
the outdated software and triggering updates.
Configuration management plays a role in identifying the outdated software and
triggering updates (A). It helps maintain an accurate inventory of software versions and
ensures that systems are updated to meet security standards. Backing up data (B) is
important but not a direct function of configuration management. Notifying users (C) and
documenting audit results (D) are also necessary steps, but configuration management
focuses on identifying and remediating configuration issues.
3. A mobile device used by executives for sensitive communication needs to connect
securely to cellular networks. What is the most effective method to secure cellular
communications?
,A. Use a VPN to encrypt data transmitted over the cellular network.
B. Frequently switch to different cellular providers for security.
C. Keep the device in airplane mode when not in use.
D. Disable cellular data and rely solely on Wi-Fi for communication. - Correct Answers -
A. Use a VPN to encrypt data transmitted over the cellular network.
Using a VPN (A) ensures that data transmitted over the cellular network is encrypted,
protecting it from interception. Frequently switching providers (B) does not enhance
security and can be disruptive. Keeping the device in airplane mode (C) is impractical
for executives who need to be reachable. Disabling cellular data and relying solely on
Wi-Fi (D) limits communication options and may not always be secure.
4. During the preparation phase for incident management, what is a critical activity that
ensures the organization can effectively handle security incidents?
A. Conducting a risk assessment
B. Establishing a regular incident simulation and training schedule
C. Implementing endpoint security solutions
D. Upgrading network hardware to the latest standards - Correct Answers -B.
Establishing a regular incident simulation and training schedule
Establishing a regular incident simulation and training schedule (B) is crucial in the
preparation phase as it helps ensure that the incident response team and other
stakeholders are familiar with response procedures and can act quickly and efficiently
during an actual incident. Conducting risk assessments (A) helps in understanding
potential threats but does not directly prepare for incident handling. Implementing
endpoint security (C) and upgrading network hardware (D) are important for overall
security but do not specifically prepare the team for managing incidents.
5. A security administrator needs to implement a remote access solution that ensures all
data transmitted between remote users and the corporate network is encrypted. Which
of the following remote access solutions should they deploy?
A. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) without a VPN
B. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
C. Telnet
D. HTTP - Correct Answers -B. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) should be deployed to ensure that all data transmitted
between remote users and the corporate network is encrypted. VPNs create secure,
encrypted tunnels for data transmission, protecting the integrity and confidentiality of the
data. Option A, Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) without a VPN, would expose data to
potential interception if not additionally secured. Option C, Telnet, is an insecure
protocol that transmits data, including passwords, in plain text, making it vulnerable to
interception. Option D, HTTP, is not encrypted, and its use would leave data exposed to
,unauthorized access. Therefore, a VPN is the best solution for encrypted remote
access.
6. In a cloud environment, an organization wants to ensure their data encryption
remains secure against potential future quantum computing threats. Which key length
should they consider for RSA encryption to maintain security in the long term?
A. 1024-bit
B. 2048-bit
C. 4096-bit
D. 8192-bit - Correct Answers -C. 4096-bit
A 4096-bit RSA key length is considered more resilient against future quantum
computing threats due to its increased complexity, providing long-term security (C). A
1024-bit key (A) is already considered insecure against current threats and will be even
more vulnerable to quantum attacks. A 2048-bit key (B) is secure against most current
threats but may not provide adequate protection against advanced quantum computing.
An 8192-bit key (D) offers extreme security but is usually unnecessary and introduces
significant computational overhead, making 4096-bit a balanced choice for long-term
security.
7. A company implements an EDR system to improve endpoint security. What is the
primary advantage of using EDR over traditional antivirus solutions?
A. EDR provides automatic software updates.
B. EDR allows for real-time threat detection and response.
C. EDR consumes less system resources than antivirus solutions.
D. EDR is easier to install and configure than antivirus software. - Correct Answers -B.
EDR allows for real-time threat detection and response.
The primary advantage of EDR over traditional antivirus solutions is that EDR allows for
real-time threat detection and response (B), providing more comprehensive and
immediate protection against threats. While automatic software updates (A) and
resource consumption (C) are considerations, they are not the main advantages of
EDR. Ease of installation (D) may vary depending on the system but is not typically the
primary benefit.
8. During a team meeting, an employee suggests implementing a new security measure
that could potentially violate user privacy. What should the team leader do according to
the organizational code of ethics?
A. Approve the measure to enhance security, despite privacy concerns.
B. Reject the measure outright to avoid any privacy issues.
C. Evaluate the measure carefully and consult with legal and compliance teams to
ensure it aligns with ethical guidelines.
, D. Implement the measure temporarily to see if there are any complaints. - Correct
Answers -C. Evaluate the measure carefully and consult with legal and compliance
teams to ensure it aligns with ethical guidelines.
The organizational code of ethics requires balancing security with user privacy.
Evaluating the measure and consulting with legal and compliance teams (C) ensures
that any new implementation aligns with ethical and legal standards. Approving the
measure despite privacy concerns (A) disregards ethical responsibilities. Rejecting the
measure outright (B) might be premature without a thorough evaluation. Implementing
the measure temporarily (D) could lead to privacy violations and damage trust.
9. In response to a security incident, an organization implements a new incident
response procedure and trains employees on how to handle similar incidents in the
future. What type of control is this?
A. Preventive control
B. Detective control
C. Corrective control
D. Deterrent control - Correct Answers -C. Corrective control
Implementing a new incident response procedure and training employees in response
to a security incident is a corrective control (C) because it involves taking steps to
address the incident's impact and ensure that employees are better prepared to handle
similar incidents in the future. Preventive control (A) would involve measures to avoid
incidents from occurring, such as security awareness training. Detective control (B)
involves identifying and reporting the incident, while deterrent control (D) aims to
discourage incidents but does not involve creating new procedures or training.
10. To monitor and record access to sensitive areas within a facility, a company installs
security cameras. What is the role of these cameras in the context of security controls?
A. They function as a preventive control to block unauthorized access.
B. They serve as a detective control by recording and identifying unauthorized access.
C. They act as a deterrent control by discouraging unauthorized access.
D. They operate as a compensating control for inadequate physical security measures. -
Correct Answers -B. They serve as a detective control by recording and identifying
unauthorized access.
Security cameras installed to monitor and record access to sensitive areas serve as a
detective control (B) by capturing video footage that can be reviewed to identify
unauthorized access. Preventive control (A) would involve physical barriers to stop
access, such as locks or biometric scanners. Deterrent control (C) aims to discourage
access attempts, although security cameras can also have a deterrent effect, their
primary role here is detection. Compensating control (D) provides alternative measures
when primary controls are lacking, but the cameras' main function is to detect and
record access.
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
1. A U.S.-based company is expanding its services to Canadian customers. What must
the company consider to comply with Canadian privacy regulations?
A. Apply the same U.S. privacy regulations to Canadian data for consistency.
B. Obtain explicit consent from Canadian customers before collecting their data.
C. Implement stricter data retention policies than those required by Canadian law.
D. Avoid collecting any personal information from Canadian customers to bypass
compliance. - Correct Answers -B. Obtain explicit consent from Canadian customers
before collecting their data.
Option (B) is correct because Canadian privacy laws, such as the Personal Information
Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA), require explicit consent for data
collection. Option (A) is incorrect as U.S. regulations may not meet Canadian legal
standards. Option (C) is not necessary unless the company's internal policies require
stricter measures. Option (D) is impractical and counterproductive as it limits business
operations in Canada.
2. During a routine audit, it is discovered that several systems are running outdated
software versions. What role does configuration management play in addressing this
issue effectively?
A. Identifying the outdated software and triggering updates.
B. Backing up the data before updating software.
C. Notifying users about the outdated software.
D. Documenting the audit results for future reference. - Correct Answers -A. Identifying
the outdated software and triggering updates.
Configuration management plays a role in identifying the outdated software and
triggering updates (A). It helps maintain an accurate inventory of software versions and
ensures that systems are updated to meet security standards. Backing up data (B) is
important but not a direct function of configuration management. Notifying users (C) and
documenting audit results (D) are also necessary steps, but configuration management
focuses on identifying and remediating configuration issues.
3. A mobile device used by executives for sensitive communication needs to connect
securely to cellular networks. What is the most effective method to secure cellular
communications?
,A. Use a VPN to encrypt data transmitted over the cellular network.
B. Frequently switch to different cellular providers for security.
C. Keep the device in airplane mode when not in use.
D. Disable cellular data and rely solely on Wi-Fi for communication. - Correct Answers -
A. Use a VPN to encrypt data transmitted over the cellular network.
Using a VPN (A) ensures that data transmitted over the cellular network is encrypted,
protecting it from interception. Frequently switching providers (B) does not enhance
security and can be disruptive. Keeping the device in airplane mode (C) is impractical
for executives who need to be reachable. Disabling cellular data and relying solely on
Wi-Fi (D) limits communication options and may not always be secure.
4. During the preparation phase for incident management, what is a critical activity that
ensures the organization can effectively handle security incidents?
A. Conducting a risk assessment
B. Establishing a regular incident simulation and training schedule
C. Implementing endpoint security solutions
D. Upgrading network hardware to the latest standards - Correct Answers -B.
Establishing a regular incident simulation and training schedule
Establishing a regular incident simulation and training schedule (B) is crucial in the
preparation phase as it helps ensure that the incident response team and other
stakeholders are familiar with response procedures and can act quickly and efficiently
during an actual incident. Conducting risk assessments (A) helps in understanding
potential threats but does not directly prepare for incident handling. Implementing
endpoint security (C) and upgrading network hardware (D) are important for overall
security but do not specifically prepare the team for managing incidents.
5. A security administrator needs to implement a remote access solution that ensures all
data transmitted between remote users and the corporate network is encrypted. Which
of the following remote access solutions should they deploy?
A. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) without a VPN
B. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
C. Telnet
D. HTTP - Correct Answers -B. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) should be deployed to ensure that all data transmitted
between remote users and the corporate network is encrypted. VPNs create secure,
encrypted tunnels for data transmission, protecting the integrity and confidentiality of the
data. Option A, Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) without a VPN, would expose data to
potential interception if not additionally secured. Option C, Telnet, is an insecure
protocol that transmits data, including passwords, in plain text, making it vulnerable to
interception. Option D, HTTP, is not encrypted, and its use would leave data exposed to
,unauthorized access. Therefore, a VPN is the best solution for encrypted remote
access.
6. In a cloud environment, an organization wants to ensure their data encryption
remains secure against potential future quantum computing threats. Which key length
should they consider for RSA encryption to maintain security in the long term?
A. 1024-bit
B. 2048-bit
C. 4096-bit
D. 8192-bit - Correct Answers -C. 4096-bit
A 4096-bit RSA key length is considered more resilient against future quantum
computing threats due to its increased complexity, providing long-term security (C). A
1024-bit key (A) is already considered insecure against current threats and will be even
more vulnerable to quantum attacks. A 2048-bit key (B) is secure against most current
threats but may not provide adequate protection against advanced quantum computing.
An 8192-bit key (D) offers extreme security but is usually unnecessary and introduces
significant computational overhead, making 4096-bit a balanced choice for long-term
security.
7. A company implements an EDR system to improve endpoint security. What is the
primary advantage of using EDR over traditional antivirus solutions?
A. EDR provides automatic software updates.
B. EDR allows for real-time threat detection and response.
C. EDR consumes less system resources than antivirus solutions.
D. EDR is easier to install and configure than antivirus software. - Correct Answers -B.
EDR allows for real-time threat detection and response.
The primary advantage of EDR over traditional antivirus solutions is that EDR allows for
real-time threat detection and response (B), providing more comprehensive and
immediate protection against threats. While automatic software updates (A) and
resource consumption (C) are considerations, they are not the main advantages of
EDR. Ease of installation (D) may vary depending on the system but is not typically the
primary benefit.
8. During a team meeting, an employee suggests implementing a new security measure
that could potentially violate user privacy. What should the team leader do according to
the organizational code of ethics?
A. Approve the measure to enhance security, despite privacy concerns.
B. Reject the measure outright to avoid any privacy issues.
C. Evaluate the measure carefully and consult with legal and compliance teams to
ensure it aligns with ethical guidelines.
, D. Implement the measure temporarily to see if there are any complaints. - Correct
Answers -C. Evaluate the measure carefully and consult with legal and compliance
teams to ensure it aligns with ethical guidelines.
The organizational code of ethics requires balancing security with user privacy.
Evaluating the measure and consulting with legal and compliance teams (C) ensures
that any new implementation aligns with ethical and legal standards. Approving the
measure despite privacy concerns (A) disregards ethical responsibilities. Rejecting the
measure outright (B) might be premature without a thorough evaluation. Implementing
the measure temporarily (D) could lead to privacy violations and damage trust.
9. In response to a security incident, an organization implements a new incident
response procedure and trains employees on how to handle similar incidents in the
future. What type of control is this?
A. Preventive control
B. Detective control
C. Corrective control
D. Deterrent control - Correct Answers -C. Corrective control
Implementing a new incident response procedure and training employees in response
to a security incident is a corrective control (C) because it involves taking steps to
address the incident's impact and ensure that employees are better prepared to handle
similar incidents in the future. Preventive control (A) would involve measures to avoid
incidents from occurring, such as security awareness training. Detective control (B)
involves identifying and reporting the incident, while deterrent control (D) aims to
discourage incidents but does not involve creating new procedures or training.
10. To monitor and record access to sensitive areas within a facility, a company installs
security cameras. What is the role of these cameras in the context of security controls?
A. They function as a preventive control to block unauthorized access.
B. They serve as a detective control by recording and identifying unauthorized access.
C. They act as a deterrent control by discouraging unauthorized access.
D. They operate as a compensating control for inadequate physical security measures. -
Correct Answers -B. They serve as a detective control by recording and identifying
unauthorized access.
Security cameras installed to monitor and record access to sensitive areas serve as a
detective control (B) by capturing video footage that can be reviewed to identify
unauthorized access. Preventive control (A) would involve physical barriers to stop
access, such as locks or biometric scanners. Deterrent control (C) aims to discourage
access attempts, although security cameras can also have a deterrent effect, their
primary role here is detection. Compensating control (D) provides alternative measures
when primary controls are lacking, but the cameras' main function is to detect and
record access.
