NUR 416 OB Labor and Delivery Questions and Answers- Barry University| Updated 80+ Q&A Latest 2026.

NUR 416 OB Labor and Delivery Questions and Answers. Gravidity, Parity, and Labor Terms (Questions 1-15) 1. What is the correct term for a woman who is pregnant for the first time? o A) Nulligravida o B) Primigravida o C) Multigravida o D) Nullipara 2. A "para 2" designation indicates a woman has: o A) Been pregnant twice. o B) Had two live births. o C) Carried two pregnancies past 20 weeks. o D) Had two term pregnancies. 3. Cervical effacement refers to: o A) The opening of the cervix. o B) The station of the presenting part. o C) The stretching and thinning of the cervix. o D) The strength of uterine contractions. 4. The peak or most intense part of a uterine contraction is called the: o A) Increment o B) Acme o C) Decrement o D) Frequency 5. How is the frequency of contractions measured? o A) From the start of one contraction to the end of the same contraction. o B) From the peak of one contraction to the peak of the next. o C) From the start of one contraction to the start of the next. o D) By the strength of the contraction at its peak. 6. A contraction that feels like the firmness of the chin when palpated is described as: o A) Mild o B) Moderate o C) Strong o D) Hypertonic 7. The normal baseline range for the fetal heart rate (FHR) is: o A) 100-140 bpm o B) 110-160 bpm o C) 120-180 bpm o D) 90-150 bpm 8. FHR tachycardia is defined as a baseline greater than: o A) 150 bpm o B) 160 bpm o C) 161 bpm o D) 170 bpm 9. An increase in FHR of at least 15 bpm for at least 15 seconds is termed a(n): o A) Acceleration o B) Early deceleration o C) Variable deceleration o D) Prolonged deceleration 10. Irregular fluctuations in the baseline FHR are known as: o A) Accelerations o B) Decelerations o C) Variability o D) Arrhythmia 11. Which pain management method involves injecting anesthetic into the perineum prior to repair? o A) Epidural block o B) Pudendal block o C) Intrathecal block o D) General anesthesia 12. General anesthesia during labor is reserved for: o A) First-time mothers o B) Emergency situations only o C) All cesarean sections o D) Patients with back pain 13. Which non-pharmacologic technique involves applying pressure to the sacral area? o A) Squatting o B) Hypnosis o C) Counter pressure o D) Position changes 14. During which phase of labor is a primigravida patient likely to be most restless and anxious, with contractions 45 seconds long every 3-5 minutes? o A) Latent Phase (0-3 cm) o B) Active Phase (4-7 cm) o C) Transition Phase (8-10 cm) o D) Second Stage 15. The transition phase of the first stage of labor is characterized by cervical dilation of: o A) 0-3 cm o B) 4-7 cm o C) 8-10 cm o D) Complete (10 cm) Stages of Labor and Delivery (Questions 16-30) 16. The second stage of labor begins with: o A) The onset of regular contractions. o B) Complete dilation of the cervix. o C) The delivery of the placenta. o D) The mother feeling the urge to push. 17. A key sign of placental separation during the third stage of labor is: o A) A sudden gush of clear fluid. o B) A rise in the maternal fundus. o C) A lengthening of the umbilical cord. o D) Cessation of vaginal bleeding. 18. The primary cause of postpartum hemorrhage is: o A) Cervical laceration o B) Vaginal hematoma o C) Uterine atony o D) Retained placental fragments 19. The fourth stage of labor ends: o A) With the birth of the baby. o B) With the delivery of the placenta. o C) After 4 hours or when the mother is stable. o D) When the mother is transferred to the postpartum unit. 20. Which lochia type is described as dark red and typically lasts 3-4 days? o A) Lochia alba o B) Lochia serosa o C) Lochia rubra o D) Lochia purpurea 21. A V-shaped deceleration in FHR that is abrupt in onset and often unrelated to contractions is most indicative of: o A) Head compression o B) Umbilical cord compression o C) Placental insufficiency o D) Maternal hypotension 22. A late deceleration is characterized by: o A) An abrupt, V-shaped drop in FHR. o B) A mirror image of the contraction, starting and ending with it. o C) A gradual decrease that begins after the contraction starts. o D) A drop in FHR lasting more than 10 minutes. 23. The priority nursing intervention for a late deceleration is: o A) Discontinue Pitocin. o B) Change maternal position. o C) Administer oxygen via face mask. o D) Prepare for imminent delivery. 24. A deceleration lasting more than 10 minutes is classified as a: o A) Variable deceleration o B) Late deceleration o C) Prolonged deceleration o D) Sinusoidal pattern 25. Uterine tachysystole is defined as: o A) Contractions that are too weak. o B) More than 5 contractions in 10 minutes. o C) Contractions with poor resting tone. o D) Ineffective pushing efforts. 26. The "5 P's of Labor" that influence the process include all EXCEPT: o A) Passenger o B) Passageway o C) Powers o D) Placenta o E) Psyche 27. The relationship of the fetal spine to the maternal spine is called fetal: o A) Attitude o B) Lie o C) Presentation o D) Station 28. Zero station indicates the presenting part is: o A) At the pelvic inlet. o B) At the level of the ischial spines. o C) At the vaginal introitus. o D) Floating above the pelvis. 29. Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) refers to a mismatch between: o A) The fetal shoulders and the pelvic outlet. o B) The fetal head and the maternal pelvis. o C) The powers of labor and maternal exhaustion. o D) The placenta and the uterine wall. 30. The first intervention for shoulder dystocia is typically: o A) Fundal pressure. o B) The McRoberts maneuver. o C) An emergency episiotomy. o D) Preparing for a cesarean. Complications & Interventions (Questions 31-45) 31. Group B Streptococcus (GBS) screening is typically performed at: o A) 20-24 weeks gestation o B) 28-32 weeks gestation o C) 35-37 weeks gestation o D) At the onset of labor 32. For a GBS-positive mother, the goal is to administer antibiotics IV at least how long before delivery? o A) 30 minutes o B) 1 hour o C) 2 hours o D) 4 hours 33. Precipitous labor is defined as lasting less than: o A) 1 hour o B) 2 hours o C) 3 hours o D) 4 hours 34. Which of the following is a risk associated with an episiotomy? o A) Increased postpartum pain o B) Decreased blood loss o C) Faster perineal healing o D) Reduced risk of infection 35. The safest uterine incision for a trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC/VBAC) is: o A) Classical o B) Low vertical o C) Low transverse o D) High transverse 36. The priority nursing action for a prolapsed umbilical cord is to: o A) Push the cord back into the vagina. o B) Place the mother in Trendelenburg or knee-chest position. o C) Cover the cord with dry sterile gauze. o D) Prepare for immediate forceps delivery. 37. Amniotic Fluid Embolism (AFE) often presents initially with: o A) Severe hypertension o B) Respiratory distress and cardiac arrest o C) Uterine hypertonicity o D) Fetal bradycardia 38. The Kleihauer-Betke test is used to determine: o A) Fetal lung maturity. o B) The amount of fetal hemoglobin in maternal circulation. o C) Maternal blood type. o D) The presence of GBS. 39. Which medication for postpartum hemorrhage is contraindicated in patients with asthma? o A) Pitocin (Oxytocin) o B) Methergine (Methylergonovine) o C) Hemabate (Carboprost) o D) Cytotec (Misoprostol) 40. A postpartum patient with a firm fundus but excessive bleeding with clots likely has: o A) Uterine atony o B) A cervical or vaginal laceration o C) A hematoma o D) Subinvolution 41. The classic symptom of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is: o A) Chest pain and dyspnea. o B) Unilateral leg swelling, redness, and pain. o C) Headache and blurred vision. o D) Generalized edema. 42. Endometritis is an infection of the: o A) Bladder o B) Breast tissue o C) Uterine lining o D) Perineal incision 43. A key risk factor for developing endometritis is: o A) Early ambulation o B) Prolonged rupture of membranes o C) Exclusive breastfeeding o D) Multiparity 44. A postpartum fever that begins on day 2-10 is most suspicious for: o A) Dehydration o B) Mastitis or endometritis o C) Reaction to anesthesia o D) Normal postpartum leukocytosis 45. Which maternal adaptation phase involves the mother being passive and dependent as she recovers? o A) Taking In o B) Taking Hold o C) Letting Go o D) Adjustment Newborn Assessment & Immediate Care (Questions 46-60) 46. Vitamin K is administered to newborns to: o A) Prevent infection. o B) Promote liver function. o C) Aid in the production of clotting factors. o D) Stimulate the first stool. 47. A newborn's primary method of non-shivering heat production is: o A) Crying o B) Increased activity o C) Metabolism of brown adipose tissue (BAT) o D) Vasoconstriction 48. The first bath for a stable newborn should be delayed until: o A) The infant's temperature is above 36.5°C and after skin-to-skin. o B) The umbilical cord stump falls off. o C) The infant has passed the first meconium stool. o D) At least 4 hours after birth. o . 49. Acrocyanosis in a newborn is: o A) A central blue discoloration indicating hypoxia. o B) A yellow tinge to the skin. o C) A blue/pink mottling of the trunk. o D) Bluish hands and feet, which is normal. 50. The normal expected weight loss for a newborn in the first week is: o A) 1-3% o B) 5-10% o C) 10-15% o D) No weight loss is expected. 51. The Apgar score is assessed at: o A) 1 and 5 minutes of age. o B) 5 and 10 minutes of age. o C) 15 and 30 minutes of age. o D) 1 hour and 2 hours of age. 52. When suctioning a newborn with a bulb syringe, the correct order is: o A) Nose first, then mouth. o B) Mouth first, then nose. o C) The order does not matter. o D) Only suction if visible secretions are present. 53. The diamond-shaped, anterior fontanel normally closes by: o A) 2-3 months o B) 6-9 months o C) 12 months o D) 18 months 54. A newborn assessment reveals a heart-shaped tongue. This finding is associated with: o A) A normal variant. o B) Ankyloglossia (tongue-tie). o C) Thrush. o D) Cleft palate. 55. The reflex elicited by stroking an infant's cheek, causing them to turn and open their mouth, is the: o A) Sucking reflex o B) Rooting reflex o C) Moro reflex o D) Babinski reflex 56. When an infant's foot is stroked and the toes fan outward, this is a positive: o A) Plantar grasp o B) Babinski reflex o C) Stepping reflex o D) Tonic neck reflex 57. Breastfed infants should typically feed: o A) Every 4 hours on a schedule. o B) 8-12 times per day, on demand. o C) Only when they cry vigorously. o D) No more than 6 times per day. 58. Newborn screening tests (e.g., for PKU) are ideally performed: o A) Immediately after birth. o B) After 24-48 hours of milk ingestion. o C) At the 2-week checkup. o D) Before discharge, regardless of feeding. 59. A normal newborn blood glucose level is: o A) 20-40 mg/dL o B) 40-60 mg/dL o C) 60-80 mg/dL o D) 80-100 mg/dL 60. Parent education after a circumcision includes noting that: o A) The penis should be cleaned with soap and water. o B) A yellow exudate after 24 hours is normal. o C) Bleeding is expected for several days. o D) Petroleum jelly should never be applied. Newborn Complications & Conditions (Questions 61-80+) 61. A "late preterm" infant is born between: o A) 20-27 weeks o B) 28-31 weeks o C) 34-36 weeks o D) 37-39 weeks 62. Pathologic jaundice is characterized by: o A) Appearing after 24 hours of life. o B) Being caused by breast milk. o C) Appearing within the first 24 hours of life. o D) Never requiring phototherapy. 63. The most dangerous potential consequence of severe hyperbilirubinemia is: o A) Anemia o B) Hypoglycemia o C) Kernicterus o D) Dehydration 64. During phototherapy, the nurse should: o A) Apply lotion to the infant's skin. o B) Keep the infant fully clothed. o C) Monitor the infant's temperature and bilirubin levels. o D) Cover the infant's eyes with a blanket. 65. Cold stress in a newborn can lead to: o A) Hyperglycemia o B) Decreased oxygen consumption o C) Respiratory distress and acidosis o D) Bradycardia 66. Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) in preterm infants is primarily caused by: o A) Infection o B) Meconium aspiration o C) Surfactant deficiency o D) Pulmonary hypertension 67. Signs of RDS include all EXCEPT: o A) Tachypnea & grunting o B) Nasal flaring & retractions o C) Bradycardia o D) Cyanosis 68. Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn (TTN) is often seen in: o A) Post-term infants o B) Infants born via cesarean section o C) Infants with congenital heart defects o D) Preterm infants under 30 weeks 69. Necrotizing Enterocolitis (NEC) often presents initially with: o A) Projectile vomiting o B) Feeding intolerance and abdominal distension o C) Bloody diarrhea o D) High-pitched cry 70. Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome (NAS) is caused by: o A) Fetal alcohol exposure o B) Maternal opioid or drug withdrawal in the newborn o C) Neonatal sepsis o D) Birth trauma 71. Nursing care for an infant with NAS focuses on: o A) Frequent stimulation and play. o B) Swaddling, a quiet environment, and small, frequent feeds. o C) Keeping under bright lights for observation. o D) Limiting physical contact. 72. A major risk factor for early-onset Group B Strep (GBS) disease in a newborn is: o A) Maternal age over 35 o B) Prolonged rupture of membranes 18 hours o C) Maternal diabetes o D) Sibling with allergies 73. To prevent ophthalmia neonatorum caused by gonorrhea, all newborns receive: o A) Penicillin G injection o B) Erythromycin eye ointment o C) Silver nitrate drops o D) Tetracycline ointment 74. An infant born to an HIV-positive mother should: o A) Be isolated from the mother. o B) Not be breastfed. o C) Receive ART prophylaxis shortly after birth. o D) Both B and C. 75. Congenital syphilis is treated with: o A) Acyclovir o B) Penicillin G o C) Erythromycin o D) Gentamicin 76. The most common fracture in a newborn from birth trauma is to the: o A) Skull o B) Humerus o C) Clavicle o D) Femur 77. Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA) in a preterm infant may be treated with: o A) Surfactant o B) Ibuprofen or Indomethacin o C) Penicillin o D) Furosemide 78. Retinopathy of Prematurity (ROP) is a leading cause of childhood blindness associated with: o A) High oxygen use in low birth weight infants o B) Vitamin A deficiency o C) Maternal CMV infection o D) Prolonged phototherapy 79. The first sign of sepsis in a newborn is often: o A) Fever o B) Lethargy and temperature instability o C) Projectile vomiting o D) Seizures 80. For an infant of a mother with unknown Hep B status, the nurse should administer: o A) Hepatitis B vaccine only within 12 hours. o B) Hepatitis B Immune Globulin (HBIG) only. o C) Both the Hep B vaccine and HBIG within 12 hours. o D) No intervention is needed until status is confirmed. 81. A late preterm infant (34-36 weeks) is at highest risk for: o A) Hyperglycemia o B) Hyperthermia o C) Hypoglycemia and jaundice o D) Polycythemia 82. The Direct Coombs test is performed on cord blood to detect: o A) Fetal lung maturity o B) Antibody-coated red blood cells (HDN) o C) Bacterial infection o D) Blood type