“CMC PRACTICE QUESTIONS - AACN “ NEWEST
UPDATED EXAM 2025 – 2026 SOLVED QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS VERIFIED 100% GRADED A+ (LATEST
VERSION)
CMC Practice Questions - AACN
A patient with diabetes, admitted for exacerbation of heart failure, develops a
rapid heart rate of 165 with a wide QRS and regular R to R. the patient is
awake, alert, diaphoretic, and denies pain but is nauseated. BP 78/62. the
nurse should first perform:
A. asynchronous defibrillation
B. overdrive transcutaneous pacing
C. synchronized cardioversion
D. rapid sequence intubation
A. incorrect. asynchronous defibrillation may cause worsening dysrhythmia.
B. incorrect. not the most effective.
C. correct. the patient is symptomatic with a wide complex tachycardia that would
benefit from a synchronized cardioversion.
D. incorrect.
What is the best method to assess long-term regimen compliance for a patient
with diabetes mellitus?
A. patient log of home finger-stick blood glucose monitoring and insulin
administration.
B. patient self-report of home diet and exercise plan.
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C. Hgb A1C on admission
D. speaking privately with their significant other about what the patient is
doing.
A. incorrect.
B. incorrect.
C. correct. Hgb A1C provides information about the average amount of glucose
present in the patient's bloodstream over the previous 3-4 months.
D. incorrect.
A patient underwent a PCI via the right groin. a few hours later, the patient
complains of back pain and upon further questioning states it is on the right
side. the nurse should first:
A. visualize the right groin to rule out AV fistula.
B. palpate the right flank to rule out retroperitoneal bleeding.
C. log roll the patient to the left to relieve back pressure.
D. administer pain medication and reassess in 30 minutes.
A. incorrect. a groin site AV fistula is confirmed by bruit auscultation and U/S for
diagnosis, not visual site assessment.
B. correct. retroperitoneal bleeding post cardiac cath may occur on the side of the
groin puncture site with reports of back and flank pain on the side of the puncture
site.
C. incorrect.
D. incorrect.
Following the placement of a drug eluding stent in the right coronary artery,
current VS are BP 112/65 ; HR 40 ; RR 14. Telemetry shows new onset
bradycardia with intermittent unifocal PVCs. The patient denies chest pain,
and no other symptoms are present. The nurse should:
A. obtain an order for atropine as the PVCs are compensatory.
B. draw a stat K+ level to correct expected electrolyte imbalance.
C. recognize the rhythm is transient and continue to monitor.
D. prepare to apply a transcutaneous pacemaker
A. incorrect. patient is not symptomatic so does not require intervention.
B. incorrect. patient may require electrolyte assessment with ectopy present but this
is not required stat.
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C. correct. right coronary artery reperfusion after AMI intervention may cause cardiac
ectopy affecting the sinus node, AV node inferior wall, inferior wall of the left ventricle
and possibly right ventricle.
D. incorrect. the patient is asymptomatic.
A patient with a history of IV heroin abuse is most likely at risk for developing
A. atherosclerosis
B. cardiomyopathy
C. valvular disease
D. coronary artery vasospasm
A. incorrect. atherosclerosis is a progressive disorder causing vessel occlusion. IV
drug use may worsen already present atherosclerosis by additive residue build up,
leading to occlusion.
B. incorrect.
C. correct. infective endocarditis and valve vegetation.
D. incorrect. not caused by heroine.
The nurse admits a patient who is scheduled for a cardiac cath and possible
PCI in the morning. The 12 lead EKG on admission shows an inferior wall MI
with ST segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. The patient is receiving a
nitroglycerin (Tridil) gtt at 50mcg/min, dobutamine (Dobutrex) at
10mcg/kg/min, and amiodarone (Cordarone). telemetry shows NSR with
occasional PACs. BP 97/66 ; HR 62 ; CVP 5 mmHg. The patient is at most risk
for:
A. hypotension
B. total occlusion of the left anterior descending artery.
C. A-Fib with RVR
D. cardiogenic shock
A. correct. the patient is receiving 2 agents that can cause hypotension. Nitro is a
vasodilator, dobutamine can cause some vasodilation.
B. incorrect. ST changes on lead II, III, and aVF indicate that the right coronary
artery was probably affected, not the LAD.
C. incorrect.
D. incorrect. vital signs do not indicate that cardiogenic shock is present.
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The nurse is caring for a patient who had a temporary transvenous pacemaker
inserted and started in the VVI mode 1 hour ago. when examining the EKG
strip the nurse notes occasional pacemaker spikes that are note followed by
QRS complexes. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first.
A. increase the mA.
B. turn the sensitivity to demand.
C. change the batteries.
D. apply the transcutaneous pacemaker.
A. correct. the pacer is sensing and pacing but not capturing, this is most commonly
due to the myocardial tissue requiring an increased level of stimulus for activation.
increasing the mA will increase the output and potentially increase the conduction.
B. incorrect. the pacemaker setting is set for ventricular pacing, sensing when
ventricular response is below the lower rate limit and pacing in the absense of a
sensed intrinsic ventricular event.
C. incorrect.
D. incorrect. not the first action.
While caring for a patient the nurse notes increasing SOB, swelling in the
ankles, JVD, and crackles. These findings would most likely indicate the need
for:
A. incentive spirometry
B. antibiotics
C. thoracentesis
D. diuresis
A. incorrect. these finding are not consistent with atelectasis.
B. incorrect. ABX are for pneumonia, these finding are not consistent with the
diagnosis of pneumonia.
C. incorrect. thoracentesis treats a pleural effusion.
D. correct. patient is manifesting symptoms of heart failure and diuretics will help
eliminate excess fluid accumulation.
As the nurse is assessing a patient with an emergently placed IABP, the
patient suddenly complains of sharp pain (8/10) between the shoulder blades.
the nurse should anticipate
A. removal of the balloon and surgical repair.