PMK-EE E7 EXAM LATEST (2026)
COMPLETE QUESTIONS With 100%
Verified Solutions Plus Rationales
1. With the exception of personnel assigned to Individual Augmentee (IA) programs,
what is the maximum number of award points allowed toward advancement at E-4
and E-5?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Answer: B
Rationale: Personnel not assigned to IA programs may earn a maximum of 10 award
points toward E-4 and E-5 advancement.
2. When advanced on 16 September, what is the new assigned time-in-rate for an E-7?
A. 1 October
B. 1 August
C. 1 September
D. 15 September
Answer: C
Rationale: Advancement on 16 September results in a new assigned time-in-rate of 1
September for that cycle.
3. Rank ordering candidates by numerical score during an E-7 selection board is
known as:
A. Slating
B. Screening
C. Sorting
D. Ranking
Answer: A
Rationale: Slating refers to ordering advancement board candidates by score.
4. General guidelines for retirement ceremonies are found in which resource?
A. SECNAVINST
B. Naval Military Personnel Manual
C. UCMJ
D. Sailor’s Handbook
Answer: B
Rationale: Retirement ceremony guidelines are contained in the Naval Military
Personnel Manual.
5. When preparing for separation or retirement, which lifecycle events should be
attended?
, A. Pre-separation counseling and GPS class
B. Only medical screening
C. Uniform turnover only
D. No required events
Answer: A
Rationale: Sailors should attend both pre-separation counseling and the Transition
GPS class.
6. Dependents may receive death benefits by:
A. Check only
B. Direct deposit or mail
C. Cash pickup
D. Online transfer only
Answer: B
Rationale: Death benefits may be delivered via mail or direct deposit.
7. Appropriate work environments for a servicewoman in late pregnancy include:
A. Heavy lifting tasks
B. Avoiding radiation below 300MHz
C. Night shifts only
D. Extended standing only
Answer: B
Rationale: Work should avoid radiation emanations below 300MHz during last
trimester.
8. A death benefit of $6,000 is normally paid to next of kin within:
A. 48–72 hours
B. 1 week
C. 7–10 days
D. 12 hours
Answer: A
Rationale: Standard processing time for the death benefit is 48–72 hours.
9. What total number of extensions are authorized per enlistment?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
Rationale: Up to two extensions are authorized per enlistment cycle.
10. Extensions are authorized only in:
A. Yearly increments
B. Monthly increments
C. Weekly increments
D. Daily increments
Answer: B
Rationale: Extensions of enlistments are authorized only in monthly increments.
11. The term “Advancement Limiting Date” refers to:
A. Expiration of advancement authority
B. Promotion cutoff date
, C. Retirement eligibility date
D. Time-in-rate requirement
Answer: A
Rationale: It is the date that advancement authority expires, preventing further
progression past that point.
12. A retired enlisted member of the Navy with 30 years active duty may be ordered
back to active duty:
A. Never
B. During wartime or national emergency
C. Only with consent
D. At age 65
Answer: B
Rationale: Members in that category may be recalled during wartime or national
emergency.
13. A client-centered type of counseling is:
A. Directive
B. Nondirective
C. Mixed
D. Critique-only
Answer: B
Rationale: Nondirective counseling focuses on the Sailor’s issues and solutions.
14. Members transferred to retired list without pay are listed under which reserve
category?
A. Standby Reserve
B. Retired Reserve
C. Active Reserve
D. Volunteer Reserve
Answer: B
Rationale: Those members are part of the Retired Reserve.
15. Who is responsible for collecting facts concerning a potential UCMJ offense?
A. Commanding Officer
B. Preliminary Inquiry Officer
C. Legal Officer
D. Security Officer
Answer: B
Rationale: The Preliminary Inquiry Officer gathers facts for potential UCMJ action.
16. Which reward is not appropriate for outstanding performance?
A. Letter of Commendation
B. Leave award
C. Extra duty
D. Use of CO parking space
Answer: D
Rationale: The use of the Commanding Officer’s parking space is not a standard
performance reward.
COMPLETE QUESTIONS With 100%
Verified Solutions Plus Rationales
1. With the exception of personnel assigned to Individual Augmentee (IA) programs,
what is the maximum number of award points allowed toward advancement at E-4
and E-5?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Answer: B
Rationale: Personnel not assigned to IA programs may earn a maximum of 10 award
points toward E-4 and E-5 advancement.
2. When advanced on 16 September, what is the new assigned time-in-rate for an E-7?
A. 1 October
B. 1 August
C. 1 September
D. 15 September
Answer: C
Rationale: Advancement on 16 September results in a new assigned time-in-rate of 1
September for that cycle.
3. Rank ordering candidates by numerical score during an E-7 selection board is
known as:
A. Slating
B. Screening
C. Sorting
D. Ranking
Answer: A
Rationale: Slating refers to ordering advancement board candidates by score.
4. General guidelines for retirement ceremonies are found in which resource?
A. SECNAVINST
B. Naval Military Personnel Manual
C. UCMJ
D. Sailor’s Handbook
Answer: B
Rationale: Retirement ceremony guidelines are contained in the Naval Military
Personnel Manual.
5. When preparing for separation or retirement, which lifecycle events should be
attended?
, A. Pre-separation counseling and GPS class
B. Only medical screening
C. Uniform turnover only
D. No required events
Answer: A
Rationale: Sailors should attend both pre-separation counseling and the Transition
GPS class.
6. Dependents may receive death benefits by:
A. Check only
B. Direct deposit or mail
C. Cash pickup
D. Online transfer only
Answer: B
Rationale: Death benefits may be delivered via mail or direct deposit.
7. Appropriate work environments for a servicewoman in late pregnancy include:
A. Heavy lifting tasks
B. Avoiding radiation below 300MHz
C. Night shifts only
D. Extended standing only
Answer: B
Rationale: Work should avoid radiation emanations below 300MHz during last
trimester.
8. A death benefit of $6,000 is normally paid to next of kin within:
A. 48–72 hours
B. 1 week
C. 7–10 days
D. 12 hours
Answer: A
Rationale: Standard processing time for the death benefit is 48–72 hours.
9. What total number of extensions are authorized per enlistment?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
Rationale: Up to two extensions are authorized per enlistment cycle.
10. Extensions are authorized only in:
A. Yearly increments
B. Monthly increments
C. Weekly increments
D. Daily increments
Answer: B
Rationale: Extensions of enlistments are authorized only in monthly increments.
11. The term “Advancement Limiting Date” refers to:
A. Expiration of advancement authority
B. Promotion cutoff date
, C. Retirement eligibility date
D. Time-in-rate requirement
Answer: A
Rationale: It is the date that advancement authority expires, preventing further
progression past that point.
12. A retired enlisted member of the Navy with 30 years active duty may be ordered
back to active duty:
A. Never
B. During wartime or national emergency
C. Only with consent
D. At age 65
Answer: B
Rationale: Members in that category may be recalled during wartime or national
emergency.
13. A client-centered type of counseling is:
A. Directive
B. Nondirective
C. Mixed
D. Critique-only
Answer: B
Rationale: Nondirective counseling focuses on the Sailor’s issues and solutions.
14. Members transferred to retired list without pay are listed under which reserve
category?
A. Standby Reserve
B. Retired Reserve
C. Active Reserve
D. Volunteer Reserve
Answer: B
Rationale: Those members are part of the Retired Reserve.
15. Who is responsible for collecting facts concerning a potential UCMJ offense?
A. Commanding Officer
B. Preliminary Inquiry Officer
C. Legal Officer
D. Security Officer
Answer: B
Rationale: The Preliminary Inquiry Officer gathers facts for potential UCMJ action.
16. Which reward is not appropriate for outstanding performance?
A. Letter of Commendation
B. Leave award
C. Extra duty
D. Use of CO parking space
Answer: D
Rationale: The use of the Commanding Officer’s parking space is not a standard
performance reward.
