WGU D118 FINAL PAPER TEST BANK QUIZ
Q&A 2026 100% CORRECT.
◍ What are the main viral causes of acute GI illness? Select all that
apply
A. Staphylococcus
B. Norovirus
C. Rotovirus
D. Hepatitis A. Answer: B & C.
◍ A 65 year old female patient presents to the clinic complaining of
abdominal pain, n/v, distention, & constipation for the past few days.
The FNP auscultates high-pitched (aka "tinkling") bowel sounds.
What condition does the FNP suspect?
A. Viral Gastroenteritis
B. IBS
C. Bowel obstruction
D. Food poisoning. Answer: C. Bowel obstruction. Symptoms of
intestinal obstruction are: Severe pain in your belly. Severe cramping
sensations in your belly. Throwing up. Feelings of fullness or swelling
in your belly. Loud sounds from your belly. Feeling gassy, but being
unable to pass gas. Constipation (being unable to pass stool)
,◍ What is the most common cause of pancreatitis?
A. Gallbladder disease
B. Chronic alcohol abuse
C. Pancreatic cancer
D. All of the above. Answer: A. Gallbladder disease. All of these are
causes of pancreatitis, but gallbladder disease is the most common.
◍ S: DZ is a 34 year old male with no significant past medical
history. He lives at home with his wife two children, ages 6 and 10.
No known drug allergies. He presents to an urgent care clinic with a 2
day history of fever and sore throat. On exam he is noted to have dry
mucous membranes, enlarged lymph nodes, and a sore throat with
exudative patches on the tonsils. O: Rapid Antigen Detection Tests (+)
for GAS. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for
this patient?
A. Vancomycin 15mg/kg IV q 12 hours
B. Clindamycin 450mg TID
C. Azithromycin 500mg x1, 250mg days 2-5
D. Amoxicillin 500mg BID. Answer: D. Amoxicillin 500 mg BID.
*viral etiologies do not require medication therapy -1st line=
penicillin or amoxicillin *penicillin V: child 250mg BID or TID x
10days; adult 250mg TID or QID OR 500mg BID x 10 days
*amoxicillin: 50mg/kg once daily (max 1000mg) OR 25mg/kg BID
(max 500mg) x 10 days *benzathine penicillin G 600000 units IM for
pts<27kg x 1 dose; 1.2 million units IM for pts>27kg x 1 dose -
penicillin allergy: 1st gen ceph, clinda, macrolide
,◍ Treatment options in suppurative conjunctivitis include all of the
following ophthalmic preparations except:
A. Bacitracin-polymyxin B
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Erythromycin
D. Penicillin. Answer: D. Penicillin. Bacterial conjunctivitis is most
often treated with ophthalmic antibiotic eyedrops or ointments such as
Bleph (sulfacetamide sodium), Moxeza (moxifloxacin), Zymar
(gatifloxacin), Romycin (erythromycin), Polytrim
(polymyxin/trimethoprim), Ak-Tracin, Bacticin (bacitracin), AK-
Poly-Bac, Ocumycin, Polycin-B, Polytracin
◍ The family nurse practitioner has just diagnosed a 27-year-old with
Lyme disease. What is the appropriate management?
A. Bactrim 400 mg b.i.d. for 14- 21 days
B. Amoxicillin 100 mg t.i.d. for 10 days
C. Doxycycline 100 mg b.i.d. for 14- 21 days
D. Keflex 500 mg q.i.d. for 14 days. Answer: C. Doxycycline 100 mg
b.i.d. for 14- 21 days
◍ A patient presents to the clinic with complaints of itching and
flaking to bilateral feet. The NP observes that there is a characteristic
macerated appearance between the toes. The NP diagnoses the patient
with which of the following?
, A. Tinea pedis
B. Onychomycosis
C. Tinea versicolor
D. Seborrheic dermatitis. Answer: A. Tinea pedis. The macerated
appearance between the toes is consistent with a tinea infection and is
commonly called "athlete's foot."
◍ A 23 year old male presents with low back pain. he lifted a heavy
box yesterday at work but had no symptoms yesterday. Today
however, he began to feel pain and stiffness in his lower back that
hurts worse when he bends forward. On exam he has pain with
flexion and extension and a negative straight leg raise test. What
management plan would be appropriate for him at this time?
A. Order lumbar spine x rays
B. Refer for epidural steroid injections
C. Over the counter NSAID's, ice/heat, and return to work in 2 days
D. Order MRI lumbar spine. Answer: C. Over the counter NSAID's,
ice/heat, and return to work in 2 days
◍ John is a 16 year old boy who presents to the emergency room after
hurting his knee in a football game. He describes twisting his knee
and then not being able extend it completely. John tells the clinician
that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been
experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear.
Q&A 2026 100% CORRECT.
◍ What are the main viral causes of acute GI illness? Select all that
apply
A. Staphylococcus
B. Norovirus
C. Rotovirus
D. Hepatitis A. Answer: B & C.
◍ A 65 year old female patient presents to the clinic complaining of
abdominal pain, n/v, distention, & constipation for the past few days.
The FNP auscultates high-pitched (aka "tinkling") bowel sounds.
What condition does the FNP suspect?
A. Viral Gastroenteritis
B. IBS
C. Bowel obstruction
D. Food poisoning. Answer: C. Bowel obstruction. Symptoms of
intestinal obstruction are: Severe pain in your belly. Severe cramping
sensations in your belly. Throwing up. Feelings of fullness or swelling
in your belly. Loud sounds from your belly. Feeling gassy, but being
unable to pass gas. Constipation (being unable to pass stool)
,◍ What is the most common cause of pancreatitis?
A. Gallbladder disease
B. Chronic alcohol abuse
C. Pancreatic cancer
D. All of the above. Answer: A. Gallbladder disease. All of these are
causes of pancreatitis, but gallbladder disease is the most common.
◍ S: DZ is a 34 year old male with no significant past medical
history. He lives at home with his wife two children, ages 6 and 10.
No known drug allergies. He presents to an urgent care clinic with a 2
day history of fever and sore throat. On exam he is noted to have dry
mucous membranes, enlarged lymph nodes, and a sore throat with
exudative patches on the tonsils. O: Rapid Antigen Detection Tests (+)
for GAS. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for
this patient?
A. Vancomycin 15mg/kg IV q 12 hours
B. Clindamycin 450mg TID
C. Azithromycin 500mg x1, 250mg days 2-5
D. Amoxicillin 500mg BID. Answer: D. Amoxicillin 500 mg BID.
*viral etiologies do not require medication therapy -1st line=
penicillin or amoxicillin *penicillin V: child 250mg BID or TID x
10days; adult 250mg TID or QID OR 500mg BID x 10 days
*amoxicillin: 50mg/kg once daily (max 1000mg) OR 25mg/kg BID
(max 500mg) x 10 days *benzathine penicillin G 600000 units IM for
pts<27kg x 1 dose; 1.2 million units IM for pts>27kg x 1 dose -
penicillin allergy: 1st gen ceph, clinda, macrolide
,◍ Treatment options in suppurative conjunctivitis include all of the
following ophthalmic preparations except:
A. Bacitracin-polymyxin B
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Erythromycin
D. Penicillin. Answer: D. Penicillin. Bacterial conjunctivitis is most
often treated with ophthalmic antibiotic eyedrops or ointments such as
Bleph (sulfacetamide sodium), Moxeza (moxifloxacin), Zymar
(gatifloxacin), Romycin (erythromycin), Polytrim
(polymyxin/trimethoprim), Ak-Tracin, Bacticin (bacitracin), AK-
Poly-Bac, Ocumycin, Polycin-B, Polytracin
◍ The family nurse practitioner has just diagnosed a 27-year-old with
Lyme disease. What is the appropriate management?
A. Bactrim 400 mg b.i.d. for 14- 21 days
B. Amoxicillin 100 mg t.i.d. for 10 days
C. Doxycycline 100 mg b.i.d. for 14- 21 days
D. Keflex 500 mg q.i.d. for 14 days. Answer: C. Doxycycline 100 mg
b.i.d. for 14- 21 days
◍ A patient presents to the clinic with complaints of itching and
flaking to bilateral feet. The NP observes that there is a characteristic
macerated appearance between the toes. The NP diagnoses the patient
with which of the following?
, A. Tinea pedis
B. Onychomycosis
C. Tinea versicolor
D. Seborrheic dermatitis. Answer: A. Tinea pedis. The macerated
appearance between the toes is consistent with a tinea infection and is
commonly called "athlete's foot."
◍ A 23 year old male presents with low back pain. he lifted a heavy
box yesterday at work but had no symptoms yesterday. Today
however, he began to feel pain and stiffness in his lower back that
hurts worse when he bends forward. On exam he has pain with
flexion and extension and a negative straight leg raise test. What
management plan would be appropriate for him at this time?
A. Order lumbar spine x rays
B. Refer for epidural steroid injections
C. Over the counter NSAID's, ice/heat, and return to work in 2 days
D. Order MRI lumbar spine. Answer: C. Over the counter NSAID's,
ice/heat, and return to work in 2 days
◍ John is a 16 year old boy who presents to the emergency room after
hurting his knee in a football game. He describes twisting his knee
and then not being able extend it completely. John tells the clinician
that he heard a pop when the injury occurred and has been
experiencing localized pain. The clinician suspects a meniscal tear.
