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CEA EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS 100%
VERIFIED LATEST UPDATE
Preventive cardiac care should focus primarily on addressing all
the following except? - Precise Answer ✔✔Genetic predisposition
Rationale: Smoking cessation, exercise, and medication compliance all represent
modifiable risk factors and should be the focus of preventive care. Non-modifiable
risk factors such as age, gender, genetic/family history should not be the primary
focus of prevention.
A 33-year-old woman presents with irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism, and
obesity. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum testosterone and LH ratio > 2:1.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment? - Precise Answer
✔✔Oral contraceptives
Rationale: These are classic symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome and the
patient should be treated with oral contraceptives to help stabilize their estrogen
and progesterone. Additionally, they may be managed on metformin and/or
spironolactone for their PCOS.
Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are often the first pharmacological treatment for
polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) because they help manage in several ways:
Menstrual irregularities: OCPs can help regulate menstrual cycles, making periods
lighter and more regular. This is important because irregular ovulation can lead to
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| ComprehensivePage
Solution
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2026/2027
for 2026/2027
| Comprehensive
2 of 126
| ComprehensivePage 2 of 126
endometrial hyperplasia, which is a buildup of uterine tissue that can increase the
risk of uterine cancer.
Androgen excess: OCPs can reduce androgen production and increase sex
hormone-binding globulin (SHBG), which binds androgens. This can help reduce
symptoms like acne, hirsutism (unwanted body and facial hair), and androgenic
alopecia (male pattern baldness).
Endometrium protection: OCPs can protect the endometrium by ensuring regular
ovulation
A 50-year-old woman with hypertension and diabetes comes in for a routine
check-up. What screening test should be regularly performed to monitor for early
signs of diabetic nephropathy? - Precise Answer ✔✔Urine dipstick for protein
Rationale: The most sensitive indicator of diabetic nephropathy would be the
evidence of small proteins in the urine (proteinuria) as found on urinalysis. The
other options might describe macro-organ function (such as BUN/Creat from a
BMP, a renal biopsy which is not indicated for routine diabetic nephropathy
testing, and a Abd CT, which is more akin to evaluation of less subtle findings),
but at the functional level of the nephron, namely the glomerulus, evidence of
glucose-related damage is easily identified with proteinuria from a UA.
Which of the following is at highest risk for DMII? - Precise Answer ✔✔An adult
woman with a BMI of 27 who just delivered a baby weighing 9 1/2 lbs
Rationale: Of these options, an adult woman with a BMI of 27 who just delivered a
baby weighing 9 1/2 lbs is the most likely due to their increased BMI and the large
size of the baby. giving birth to a large baby, also known as a large-for-
gestational-age (LGA) baby, can increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes
later in life. Women who give birth to a LGA baby are 10% more likely to develop
DMII 10- 14 years after pregnancy compared to women who give birth to babies of
average gestational age (AGA). This increased risk is even after adjusting for other
risk factors, such as age, obesity, high blood pressure, and family history of
diabetes.
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3 of 126
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A starting dose for a elderly adult patient with a BMI of 20 needing levothryoxine -
Precise Answer ✔✔25 mcg
Rationale: The widely considered best practice for treatment of hypothyroidism in
the elderly is to "go slow and start low". 25 mcg is the most appropriate low dose
to start with of these options. It is possible that over time the dose will be increased
until therapeutic levels are obtained, but the risk of over-dosing the patient
outweighs the desire to quickly achieve this state.
An adult female who recently returned for a recheck appointment. The only
remarkable laboratory result is for
thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), at 0.3 microunits/mL (normal = 0.4-6
microunits/mL). The patient reports that her neck hurts; examination reveals
thyroid tenderness. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse
practitioner order now? - Precise Answer ✔✔Triiodothyronine (T3) and free
thyroxine (FT4)
Rationale: Remember that a patient with low TSH is suspicious of hyperthyroidism
with a corresponding finding of elevated T3/T4 and clinical symptoms of a goiter,
tremulousness, anxiety, palpitations, weight loss, insomnia, diarrhea, etc. This
patient is describing a sore neck as well, which is suggestive of Graves disease
(hyperthyroid state).
All the following are symptoms of hypocalcemia except: - Precise Answer
✔✔Visual field deficits
Rationale: Visual field deficits is a potential symptom of pituitary adenoma. All
other are symptoms related to hypocalcemia.
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on
PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border
of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-
ray view shows this lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac silhouette.
Which is the most likely location of this area of focal consolidation?
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*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - Precise Answer ✔✔Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the
cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right
middle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of
which of the following diagnoses? - Precise Answer ✔✔Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of
diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic
myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with
hypertension. He has been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood
pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe him? -
Precise Answer ✔✔Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be
managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine
(Norvasc) as first line management therapy for hypertension not at goal with
DASH and lifestyle modifications.
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Solution
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2026/2027
for 2026/2027
| Comprehensive
1 of 126
| ComprehensivePage 1 of 126
CEA EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS 100%
VERIFIED LATEST UPDATE
Preventive cardiac care should focus primarily on addressing all
the following except? - Precise Answer ✔✔Genetic predisposition
Rationale: Smoking cessation, exercise, and medication compliance all represent
modifiable risk factors and should be the focus of preventive care. Non-modifiable
risk factors such as age, gender, genetic/family history should not be the primary
focus of prevention.
A 33-year-old woman presents with irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism, and
obesity. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum testosterone and LH ratio > 2:1.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment? - Precise Answer
✔✔Oral contraceptives
Rationale: These are classic symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome and the
patient should be treated with oral contraceptives to help stabilize their estrogen
and progesterone. Additionally, they may be managed on metformin and/or
spironolactone for their PCOS.
Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are often the first pharmacological treatment for
polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) because they help manage in several ways:
Menstrual irregularities: OCPs can help regulate menstrual cycles, making periods
lighter and more regular. This is important because irregular ovulation can lead to
Subject-Wise Verified Questions and Exam
AnswersPage
Questions
Page
1 of
With
126
1Downloadable
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Answer
| Verified
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,.Exam Questions WithExam
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With
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Answers
| Verified
Solution
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for 2026/2027
Accurate
Solution
| ComprehensivePage
Solution
Sets for Sets
2026/2027
for 2026/2027
| Comprehensive
2 of 126
| ComprehensivePage 2 of 126
endometrial hyperplasia, which is a buildup of uterine tissue that can increase the
risk of uterine cancer.
Androgen excess: OCPs can reduce androgen production and increase sex
hormone-binding globulin (SHBG), which binds androgens. This can help reduce
symptoms like acne, hirsutism (unwanted body and facial hair), and androgenic
alopecia (male pattern baldness).
Endometrium protection: OCPs can protect the endometrium by ensuring regular
ovulation
A 50-year-old woman with hypertension and diabetes comes in for a routine
check-up. What screening test should be regularly performed to monitor for early
signs of diabetic nephropathy? - Precise Answer ✔✔Urine dipstick for protein
Rationale: The most sensitive indicator of diabetic nephropathy would be the
evidence of small proteins in the urine (proteinuria) as found on urinalysis. The
other options might describe macro-organ function (such as BUN/Creat from a
BMP, a renal biopsy which is not indicated for routine diabetic nephropathy
testing, and a Abd CT, which is more akin to evaluation of less subtle findings),
but at the functional level of the nephron, namely the glomerulus, evidence of
glucose-related damage is easily identified with proteinuria from a UA.
Which of the following is at highest risk for DMII? - Precise Answer ✔✔An adult
woman with a BMI of 27 who just delivered a baby weighing 9 1/2 lbs
Rationale: Of these options, an adult woman with a BMI of 27 who just delivered a
baby weighing 9 1/2 lbs is the most likely due to their increased BMI and the large
size of the baby. giving birth to a large baby, also known as a large-for-
gestational-age (LGA) baby, can increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes
later in life. Women who give birth to a LGA baby are 10% more likely to develop
DMII 10- 14 years after pregnancy compared to women who give birth to babies of
average gestational age (AGA). This increased risk is even after adjusting for other
risk factors, such as age, obesity, high blood pressure, and family history of
diabetes.
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AnswersPage
Questions
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2 of
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,.Exam Questions WithExam
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Accurate
Solution
| ComprehensivePage
Solution
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2026/2027
for 2026/2027
| Comprehensive
3 of 126
| ComprehensivePage 3 of 126
A starting dose for a elderly adult patient with a BMI of 20 needing levothryoxine -
Precise Answer ✔✔25 mcg
Rationale: The widely considered best practice for treatment of hypothyroidism in
the elderly is to "go slow and start low". 25 mcg is the most appropriate low dose
to start with of these options. It is possible that over time the dose will be increased
until therapeutic levels are obtained, but the risk of over-dosing the patient
outweighs the desire to quickly achieve this state.
An adult female who recently returned for a recheck appointment. The only
remarkable laboratory result is for
thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), at 0.3 microunits/mL (normal = 0.4-6
microunits/mL). The patient reports that her neck hurts; examination reveals
thyroid tenderness. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse
practitioner order now? - Precise Answer ✔✔Triiodothyronine (T3) and free
thyroxine (FT4)
Rationale: Remember that a patient with low TSH is suspicious of hyperthyroidism
with a corresponding finding of elevated T3/T4 and clinical symptoms of a goiter,
tremulousness, anxiety, palpitations, weight loss, insomnia, diarrhea, etc. This
patient is describing a sore neck as well, which is suggestive of Graves disease
(hyperthyroid state).
All the following are symptoms of hypocalcemia except: - Precise Answer
✔✔Visual field deficits
Rationale: Visual field deficits is a potential symptom of pituitary adenoma. All
other are symptoms related to hypocalcemia.
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on
PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border
of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-
ray view shows this lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac silhouette.
Which is the most likely location of this area of focal consolidation?
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2026/2027
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| Comprehensive
4 of 126
| ComprehensivePage 4 of 126
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - Precise Answer ✔✔Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the
cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right
middle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of
which of the following diagnoses? - Precise Answer ✔✔Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of
diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic
myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with
hypertension. He has been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood
pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe him? -
Precise Answer ✔✔Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be
managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine
(Norvasc) as first line management therapy for hypertension not at goal with
DASH and lifestyle modifications.
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