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ATI Maternal-Newborn Practice Exam (NEW UPDATED VERSION) LATEST ACTUAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS)- GUARANTEED PASS A+ UPDATED 2026
ANTEPARTUM (1–15)
1. A 32-week gestation client reports sudden gush of fluid from the vagina. The nurse’s
priority action is:
A. Assess maternal vital signs
B. Perform a nitrazine or fern test
C. Encourage ambulation
D. Notify the provider after documentation
Answer: B
Rationale: Confirming rupture of membranes with a nitrazine or fern test is priority before
other interventions.
2. A client has gestational diabetes. Which blood glucose indicates need for intervention?
A. Fasting 90 mg/dL
B. 1-hour postprandial 150 mg/dL
C. 2-hour postprandial 120 mg/dL
D. Fasting 85 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Target 1-hour postprandial glucose <140 mg/dL; 150 is above goal.
3. Which maternal vital sign is most concerning in preeclampsia?
A. BP 140/88
B. HR 88 bpm
C. BP 160/100
D. Temp 99°F
Answer: C
Rationale: BP ≥160/110 indicates severe preeclampsia requiring immediate attention.
4. A client at 20 weeks gestation reports painless bright red bleeding. The most likely cause
is:
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A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Uterine rupture
D. Preterm labor
Answer: A
Rationale: Painless bleeding in the second trimester suggests placenta previa.
5. The purpose of a non-stress test (NST) is:
A. Assess maternal hydration
B. Evaluate fetal heart rate accelerations
C. Determine fetal sex
D. Evaluate maternal BP
Answer: B
Rationale: NST monitors fetal oxygenation and wellbeing via heart rate accelerations.
6. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is at risk for:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hyperglycemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Persistent vomiting causes electrolyte imbalance, especially low potassium.
7. The recommended daily iron intake during pregnancy is:
A. 18 mg
B. 27 mg
C. 35 mg
D. 50 mg
Answer: B
Rationale: 27 mg/day prevents maternal anemia and supports fetal development.
8. Fetal kick counts should be:
A. Done weekly
B. Counted at the same time daily
C. Ignored if the client feels movement randomly
D. Done only after meals
Answer: B
Rationale: Counting at the same time daily ensures accurate monitoring of fetal wellbeing.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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9. Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive fetus receives Rho(D) at:
A. 12 weeks
B. 28 weeks and postpartum
C. 36 weeks only
D. Only if complications occur
Answer: B
Rationale: Rho(D) prevents hemolytic disease; standard at 28 weeks and after delivery.
10. A client asks when the anatomy ultrasound is done. Nurse responds:
A. 8–10 weeks
B. 18–20 weeks
C. 28–30 weeks
D. 36–38 weeks
Answer: B
Rationale: 18–20 weeks is standard for fetal anatomy assessment.
11. Preeclampsia is characterized by:
A. BP ≥140/90 after 20 weeks with proteinuria
B. BP <140/90 and edema
C. Hypotension and headache
D. Tachycardia and polyuria
Answer: A
Rationale: Hypertension + proteinuria after 20 weeks is diagnostic for preeclampsia.
12. Early signs of preterm labor include:
A. Irregular contractions
B. Vaginal bleeding, pelvic pressure, backache
C. Braxton Hicks contractions
D. Fundal height > gestational age
Answer: B
Rationale: Preterm labor warning signs include regular contractions, pelvic pressure, and
bleeding before 37 weeks.
13. The client is at 36 weeks gestation and reports headache, visual changes, and epigastric
pain. The nurse suspects:
A. Gestational hypertension
2026 2027 GRADED A+
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B. Severe preeclampsia/HELLP syndrome
C. Hyperemesis gravidarum
D. Urinary tract infection
Answer: B
Rationale: These are classic severe preeclampsia/HELLP signs.
14. Which vaccine is safe and recommended during pregnancy?
A. Varicella
B. MMR
C. Tdap
D. Live influenza nasal spray
Answer: C
Rationale: Tdap protects the newborn from pertussis; live vaccines are contraindicated.
15. A client at 32 weeks presents with sudden, painless vaginal bleeding. The nurse
anticipates:
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Preterm labor
D. Uterine rupture
Answer: A
Rationale: Painless bleeding in late second/third trimester is most commonly placenta previa.
INTRAPARTUM (16–30)
16. A client is 5 cm dilated with contractions every 3 min lasting 60 seconds. She is in:
A. Latent phase
B. Active phase
C. Transition phase
D. Second stage
Answer: B
Rationale: Active phase occurs 4–7 cm dilation with stronger, more frequent contractions.
17. Late decelerations on fetal monitor indicate:
A. Normal head compression
B. Uteroplacental insufficiency
C. Cord prolapse
D. Maternal hypotension
2026 2027 GRADED A+
ATI Maternal-Newborn Practice Exam (NEW UPDATED VERSION) LATEST ACTUAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS)- GUARANTEED PASS A+ UPDATED 2026
ANTEPARTUM (1–15)
1. A 32-week gestation client reports sudden gush of fluid from the vagina. The nurse’s
priority action is:
A. Assess maternal vital signs
B. Perform a nitrazine or fern test
C. Encourage ambulation
D. Notify the provider after documentation
Answer: B
Rationale: Confirming rupture of membranes with a nitrazine or fern test is priority before
other interventions.
2. A client has gestational diabetes. Which blood glucose indicates need for intervention?
A. Fasting 90 mg/dL
B. 1-hour postprandial 150 mg/dL
C. 2-hour postprandial 120 mg/dL
D. Fasting 85 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Target 1-hour postprandial glucose <140 mg/dL; 150 is above goal.
3. Which maternal vital sign is most concerning in preeclampsia?
A. BP 140/88
B. HR 88 bpm
C. BP 160/100
D. Temp 99°F
Answer: C
Rationale: BP ≥160/110 indicates severe preeclampsia requiring immediate attention.
4. A client at 20 weeks gestation reports painless bright red bleeding. The most likely cause
is:
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,2|Page
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Uterine rupture
D. Preterm labor
Answer: A
Rationale: Painless bleeding in the second trimester suggests placenta previa.
5. The purpose of a non-stress test (NST) is:
A. Assess maternal hydration
B. Evaluate fetal heart rate accelerations
C. Determine fetal sex
D. Evaluate maternal BP
Answer: B
Rationale: NST monitors fetal oxygenation and wellbeing via heart rate accelerations.
6. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is at risk for:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hyperglycemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Persistent vomiting causes electrolyte imbalance, especially low potassium.
7. The recommended daily iron intake during pregnancy is:
A. 18 mg
B. 27 mg
C. 35 mg
D. 50 mg
Answer: B
Rationale: 27 mg/day prevents maternal anemia and supports fetal development.
8. Fetal kick counts should be:
A. Done weekly
B. Counted at the same time daily
C. Ignored if the client feels movement randomly
D. Done only after meals
Answer: B
Rationale: Counting at the same time daily ensures accurate monitoring of fetal wellbeing.
2026 2027 GRADED A+
,3|Page
9. Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive fetus receives Rho(D) at:
A. 12 weeks
B. 28 weeks and postpartum
C. 36 weeks only
D. Only if complications occur
Answer: B
Rationale: Rho(D) prevents hemolytic disease; standard at 28 weeks and after delivery.
10. A client asks when the anatomy ultrasound is done. Nurse responds:
A. 8–10 weeks
B. 18–20 weeks
C. 28–30 weeks
D. 36–38 weeks
Answer: B
Rationale: 18–20 weeks is standard for fetal anatomy assessment.
11. Preeclampsia is characterized by:
A. BP ≥140/90 after 20 weeks with proteinuria
B. BP <140/90 and edema
C. Hypotension and headache
D. Tachycardia and polyuria
Answer: A
Rationale: Hypertension + proteinuria after 20 weeks is diagnostic for preeclampsia.
12. Early signs of preterm labor include:
A. Irregular contractions
B. Vaginal bleeding, pelvic pressure, backache
C. Braxton Hicks contractions
D. Fundal height > gestational age
Answer: B
Rationale: Preterm labor warning signs include regular contractions, pelvic pressure, and
bleeding before 37 weeks.
13. The client is at 36 weeks gestation and reports headache, visual changes, and epigastric
pain. The nurse suspects:
A. Gestational hypertension
2026 2027 GRADED A+
, 4|Page
B. Severe preeclampsia/HELLP syndrome
C. Hyperemesis gravidarum
D. Urinary tract infection
Answer: B
Rationale: These are classic severe preeclampsia/HELLP signs.
14. Which vaccine is safe and recommended during pregnancy?
A. Varicella
B. MMR
C. Tdap
D. Live influenza nasal spray
Answer: C
Rationale: Tdap protects the newborn from pertussis; live vaccines are contraindicated.
15. A client at 32 weeks presents with sudden, painless vaginal bleeding. The nurse
anticipates:
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Preterm labor
D. Uterine rupture
Answer: A
Rationale: Painless bleeding in late second/third trimester is most commonly placenta previa.
INTRAPARTUM (16–30)
16. A client is 5 cm dilated with contractions every 3 min lasting 60 seconds. She is in:
A. Latent phase
B. Active phase
C. Transition phase
D. Second stage
Answer: B
Rationale: Active phase occurs 4–7 cm dilation with stronger, more frequent contractions.
17. Late decelerations on fetal monitor indicate:
A. Normal head compression
B. Uteroplacental insufficiency
C. Cord prolapse
D. Maternal hypotension
2026 2027 GRADED A+
