WGU D115 OA Readiness ACTUAL EXAM REVIEW 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES COVERING QUESTIONS FROM THE
RECENT 2026 TEST GUARANTEE A+ GRADE
1. A 17-year-old female was diagnosed with angular cheilitis. She had treatment failure after a course
of topical antibiotics, topical steroids, moisture barrier creams, and antifungals were prescribed. What
would be the most appropriate next step in this patient's plan of care?
A) Refer the patient to an allergist
B) Refer the patient to a dermatologist
C) ☑ Check the patient's vitamin B12 level
D) Check the patient's ferritin level
Rationale: Angular cheilitis is most commonly caused by fungal infection, but persistent or refractory
cases are associated with vitamin B12 deficiency. Evaluation of B12 levels is appropriate after treatment
failure.
2. Which finding is most consistent with acute otitis externa?
A) Ringing in the affected ear
B) Hearing loss and drainage but no pain
C) Vertigo
D) ☑ Pruritus and history of recent swimming
Rationale: Otitis externa (“swimmer’s ear”) is associated with water exposure and presents with
pruritus, ear canal inflammation, and pain with manipulation of the auricle.
3. A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. Which is the most important part
of this patient’s plan of care?
A) No school until fever-free for 48 hours
B) ☑ Avoid contact sports for up to 4 weeks
C) Complete a 10-day course of amoxicillin
D) Reassure fatigue resolves in 5–7 days
Rationale: Splenomegaly is common in infectious mononucleosis, and contact sports increase the risk of
splenic rupture.
4. A 20-year-old female reports cold symptoms for 12 days with unilateral facial pain and purulent
nasal discharge. These findings are consistent with which diagnosis?
A) Viral respiratory infection
B) Influenza B
,C) Allergic rhinitis
D) ☑ Acute bacterial rhinosinusitis
Rationale: Symptoms lasting ≥10 days with purulent discharge and facial pain indicate acute bacterial
rhinosinusitis.
5. How is transcription best defined?
A) ☑ RNA is synthesized from a DNA template
B) RNA directs synthesis of polypeptides
C) Base pair substitution causes mutation
D) DNA polymerase binds RNA
Rationale: Transcription is the process of copying DNA into messenger RNA.
6. An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase in which protein is evident?
A) DNA polymerase
B) Embryonic proteins
C) Cytochrome P-450
D) ☑ Alpha-fetoprotein
Rationale: Elevated AFP levels are associated with neural tube defects such as spina bifida and
anencephaly.
7. Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with which history?
A) In vitro fertilization
B) Chronic illness
C) Late menarche
D) ☑ Family history of genetic disorders
Rationale: Genetic disorders in the family increase the risk of fetal chromosomal abnormalities.
8. What technique is used for prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities at 10–12 weeks’
gestation?
A) ☑ Chorionic villus sampling
B) Amniocentesis
C) Linkage analysis
D) Gene mapping
Rationale: CVS is performed earlier than amniocentesis and allows early chromosomal analysis.
, 9. What term describes failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis?
A) Polyploidy
B) ☑ Nondisjunction
C) Aneuploidy
D) Translocation
Rationale: Nondisjunction leads to abnormal chromosome numbers in daughter cells.
10. What is the most common cause of Down syndrome?
A) ☑ Maternal nondisjunction
B) Maternal translocation
C) Paternal translocation
D) Paternal nondisjunction
Rationale: Most cases of trisomy 21 result from maternal nondisjunction during meiosis.
11. Which syndrome presents with short stature, webbed neck, and widely spaced nipples?
A) Klinefelter
B) Cri du chat
C) ☑ Turner syndrome
D) Down syndrome
Rationale: Turner syndrome results from monosomy X.
12. Autosomal recessive disorders are inherited from whom?
A) ☑ Both parents
B) Father
C) Mother
D) Grandparent
Rationale: Two mutated alleles are required—one from each parent.
13. A person with a 47, XXY karyotype has which disorder?
A) Down syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) Fragile X
D) ☑ Klinefelter syndrome
ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES COVERING QUESTIONS FROM THE
RECENT 2026 TEST GUARANTEE A+ GRADE
1. A 17-year-old female was diagnosed with angular cheilitis. She had treatment failure after a course
of topical antibiotics, topical steroids, moisture barrier creams, and antifungals were prescribed. What
would be the most appropriate next step in this patient's plan of care?
A) Refer the patient to an allergist
B) Refer the patient to a dermatologist
C) ☑ Check the patient's vitamin B12 level
D) Check the patient's ferritin level
Rationale: Angular cheilitis is most commonly caused by fungal infection, but persistent or refractory
cases are associated with vitamin B12 deficiency. Evaluation of B12 levels is appropriate after treatment
failure.
2. Which finding is most consistent with acute otitis externa?
A) Ringing in the affected ear
B) Hearing loss and drainage but no pain
C) Vertigo
D) ☑ Pruritus and history of recent swimming
Rationale: Otitis externa (“swimmer’s ear”) is associated with water exposure and presents with
pruritus, ear canal inflammation, and pain with manipulation of the auricle.
3. A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis. Which is the most important part
of this patient’s plan of care?
A) No school until fever-free for 48 hours
B) ☑ Avoid contact sports for up to 4 weeks
C) Complete a 10-day course of amoxicillin
D) Reassure fatigue resolves in 5–7 days
Rationale: Splenomegaly is common in infectious mononucleosis, and contact sports increase the risk of
splenic rupture.
4. A 20-year-old female reports cold symptoms for 12 days with unilateral facial pain and purulent
nasal discharge. These findings are consistent with which diagnosis?
A) Viral respiratory infection
B) Influenza B
,C) Allergic rhinitis
D) ☑ Acute bacterial rhinosinusitis
Rationale: Symptoms lasting ≥10 days with purulent discharge and facial pain indicate acute bacterial
rhinosinusitis.
5. How is transcription best defined?
A) ☑ RNA is synthesized from a DNA template
B) RNA directs synthesis of polypeptides
C) Base pair substitution causes mutation
D) DNA polymerase binds RNA
Rationale: Transcription is the process of copying DNA into messenger RNA.
6. An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase in which protein is evident?
A) DNA polymerase
B) Embryonic proteins
C) Cytochrome P-450
D) ☑ Alpha-fetoprotein
Rationale: Elevated AFP levels are associated with neural tube defects such as spina bifida and
anencephaly.
7. Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with which history?
A) In vitro fertilization
B) Chronic illness
C) Late menarche
D) ☑ Family history of genetic disorders
Rationale: Genetic disorders in the family increase the risk of fetal chromosomal abnormalities.
8. What technique is used for prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities at 10–12 weeks’
gestation?
A) ☑ Chorionic villus sampling
B) Amniocentesis
C) Linkage analysis
D) Gene mapping
Rationale: CVS is performed earlier than amniocentesis and allows early chromosomal analysis.
, 9. What term describes failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis?
A) Polyploidy
B) ☑ Nondisjunction
C) Aneuploidy
D) Translocation
Rationale: Nondisjunction leads to abnormal chromosome numbers in daughter cells.
10. What is the most common cause of Down syndrome?
A) ☑ Maternal nondisjunction
B) Maternal translocation
C) Paternal translocation
D) Paternal nondisjunction
Rationale: Most cases of trisomy 21 result from maternal nondisjunction during meiosis.
11. Which syndrome presents with short stature, webbed neck, and widely spaced nipples?
A) Klinefelter
B) Cri du chat
C) ☑ Turner syndrome
D) Down syndrome
Rationale: Turner syndrome results from monosomy X.
12. Autosomal recessive disorders are inherited from whom?
A) ☑ Both parents
B) Father
C) Mother
D) Grandparent
Rationale: Two mutated alleles are required—one from each parent.
13. A person with a 47, XXY karyotype has which disorder?
A) Down syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) Fragile X
D) ☑ Klinefelter syndrome
