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WGU D115 OA Readiness ACTUAL EXAM REVIEW 500 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES COVERING QUESTIONS FROM THE RECENT 2026 TEST GUARANTEE A+ GRADE

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Prepare for outstanding performance on the WGU D115 OA Readiness Exam with this Actual Exam Review 2026, featuring 500 comprehensive questions with verified correct answers and detailed rationales. Carefully aligned with the most recent 2026 test content, this guide focuses on the most frequently tested topics to ensure targeted and efficient preparation. Each question includes a clear, in-depth explanation to help you fully understand the concepts and reasoning behind the answers, strengthening retention and exam confidence. Ideal for students seeking thorough coverage and top results, this resource provides extensive practice and review designed to help you approach the D115 OA exam with confidence and aim for an A+ level performance.

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WGU D115 OA Readiness ACTUAL EXAM REVIEW 500 QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES COVERING
QUESTIONS FROM THE RECENT 2026 TEST GUARANTEE A+ GRADE

A 17-year old female was diagnosed with angular cheilitis. She had treatment failure after a course of
topical antibiotics, topical steroids, moisture barrier creams, and antifungals were prescribed. What
would be the most appropriate next step in this patient's plan of care?

A) Refer the patient to an allergist

B) Refer the patient to a dermatologist

C) Check the patient's vitamin B12 level

D) Check the patient's ferritin level - correct answer -C) Check the patient's vitamin B12 level

Angular cheilitis is a condition that causes red, swollen patches in the corners of the mouth. The most
common cause is a fungal infection. Other causes are vitamin B12 deficiency and bacterial infections.



Which finding is most consistent with acute otitis externa?

A) Ringing in the affected ear

B) Hearing loss and drainage but no pain

C) Vertigo

D) pruritis and history of recent swimming - correct answer -D) pruritis and history of recent swimming

Otitis externa is a condition that causes inflammation (redness and swelling) of the external ear
canal.Otitis externa is often referred to as "swimmer's ear" because repeated exposure to water can
make the ear canal more vulnerable to inflammation.



An 15-year old male patient presents to the clinic with abdominal pain and fatigue, and is diagnosed
with infectious mononucleosis. Which is the most important part of this patient's plan of care?

A) He should not return to school until fever free for 48 hours

B) He should avoid contact sports for up to 4 weeks

C) He should complete a 10-day course of amoxicillin

D) He should be reassured that fatigue usually resolves in 5-7 days of onset - correct answer -B) He
should avoid contact sports for up to 4 weeks

,Because the spleen may become enlarged as a result of infectious mononucleosis, patients should
avoid contact sports until fully recovered. Participating in contact sports can be strenuous and may
cause the spleen to rupture.



A 20-year old female reports a history of "cold symptoms" for 12 days. Her physical exam reveals
unilateral facial pain and purulent nasal discharge. Which diagnosis are these findings consistent
with?

A) Viral respiratory infection

B) Influenza B

C) Allergic Rhinitis

D) Acute Bacterial Rhinosinusitis - correct answer -D) Acute Bacterial Rhinosinusitis

Symptoms of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis include facial pain or pressure, postnasal drip, nasal
congestion, upper jaw or tooth pain, nasal discharge, fever, and cough. Symptoms are present for 10
days or longer.



How is transcription best defined?

A) RNA is synthesized from a DNA template.

B) RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides for protein synthesis.

C) A base pair substitution results in a mutation of the amino acid sequence

D) DNA polymerase binds to the promoter site on ribonucleic acid (RNA). - correct answer -A) RNA is
synthesized from a DNA template.

Transcription is the process by which the information in a strand of DNA is copied into a new molecule
of messenger RNA (mRNA).



An amniocentesis indicates a neural tube defect when an increase in which protein is evident?

A) DNA polymerase

B) Embryonic proteins

C) Cytochrome P-450

D) Alpha fetoprotein - correct answer -D) Alpha fetoprotein

High levels of AFP may suggest the developing baby has a neural tube defect such as spina bifida or
anencephaly.

,Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant with what history?

A) Have experienced in vitro fertilization

B) Have a history of chronic illness

C) Had a late menarche

D) Have a family history of genetic disorders - correct answer -D) Have a family history of genetic
disorders

Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women 35 and older, women with a positive prenatal
screening test, chromosomal condition or neural tube defect in previous pregnancy, family history of
genetic disorders, or abnormal ultrasound results.



What is the technique for prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities at 10 to 12 weeks'
gestation?

A) Chorionic villus sampling

B) Amniocentesis

C) Linkage analysis

D) Gene mapping - correct answer -A) Chorionic villus sampling

Amniocentesis is usually performed during the 15th week of pregnancy or later. CVS is usually
performed between the 10th and 13th weeks of pregnancy.



What is the term for an error in which homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis or
mitosis?

A) Polyploidy

B) Nondisjunction

C) Aneuploidy

D) Translocation - correct answer -B) Nondisjunction

Nondisjunction means that a pair of homologous chromosomes has failed to separate or segregate at
anaphase so that both chromosomes of the pair pass to the same daughter cell. This probably occurs
most commonly in meiosis, but it may occur in mitosis to produce a mosaic individual.



What is the most common cause of Down syndrome?

A) Maternal nondisjunction

, B) Maternal translocations

C) Paternal translocation

D) Paternal nondisjunction - correct answer -A) Maternal nondisjunction

Down syndrome is usually caused by an error in cell division called "nondisjunction." Nondisjunction
results in an embryo with three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the usual two. In the majority of
cases, the extra copy of chromosome 21 comes from the mother in the egg.



What syndrome, characterized by an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X
chromosome, exhibits features that include a short stature, widely spaced nipples, and webbed neck?

A) Klinefelter

B) Cri du chat

C) Turner

D) Down - correct answer -C) Turner

A chromosomal disorder in which a female is born with only one X chromosomeTurner syndrome
results from a missing or incomplete sex chromosome.Symptoms include short stature, delayed
puberty, infertility, heart defects, and certain learning disabilities.



When a child inherits a disease that is autosomal recessive, it is inherited from whom?

A) Both parents

B) Father

C) Mother

D) Grandparent - correct answer -A) Both parents

To have an autosomal recessive disorder, you inherit two mutated genes, one from each parent.
These disorders are usually passed on by two carriers.



A person with 47, XXY karyotype has the genetic disorder resulting in which syndrome?

A) Down

B) Turner

C) Fragile X

D) Klinefelter - correct answer -D) Klinefelter

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