HONDROS NURSING EXAM 2026/2027 PREMIUM REVIEW | QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
RESPONSES
Hondros College of Nursing Comprehensive Exam Review | Core Domains: Nursing Process & Clinical
Judgment, Pharmacology & Safe Medication Administration, Adult Medical-Surgical Nursing
(Cardiovascular, Respiratory, Gastrointestinal, Renal, Endocrine, Neurological, Musculoskeletal),
Mental Health Nursing, Maternal-Newborn Nursing, Pediatric Nursing, Leadership & Professional
Practice, and Fundamentals of Nursing Care | Pre-Licensure Nursing Program Focus | Comprehensive
Final/Exit Exam Review Format
Exam Structure
Hondros College of Nursing comprehensive exams vary by course and program level. This premium
review covers core content typically assessed across multiple exams, including final course exams and
comprehensive predictor exams aligned with NCLEX® readiness.
Introduction
This Hondros Nursing Exam Premium Review for the 2026/2027 academic year provides a concentrated
review of essential nursing knowledge as structured within the Hondros curriculum. The content is
designed to reinforce critical concepts, clinical judgment, and application skills necessary for success on
course-specific exams and preparation for the NCLEX-RN®.
Answer Format
All correct answers and nursing interventions must be presented in bold and green, followed by
detailed rationales that apply the nursing process, reference evidence-based guidelines, and explain the
pathophysiological and pharmacological principles underlying safe patient care.
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV twice daily. Which
assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?
A. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
B. Peripheral edema 3+
, C. Decreased shortness of breath
D. Jugular venous distention
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure. Decreased shortness of
breath indicates reduced pulmonary congestion, a direct sign of therapeutic effect. Weight gain,
edema, and JVD suggest ongoing fluid retention and ineffective treatment. The nurse uses assessment
data to evaluate the outcome of diuretic therapy within the nursing process.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO. The client’s apical pulse is 58
beats per minute. What action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the dose as prescribed
B. Double-check the dose with another nurse
C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
D. Administer half the dose
Digoxin can cause bradycardia and heart block. The standard safety protocol requires holding the dose
if the apical pulse is <60 bpm (or per facility policy) and notifying the provider. Holding the dose
and notifying the provider prevents potential toxicity. This action demonstrates adherence to
medication safety principles and the implementation step of the nursing process.
3. A client with type 1 diabetes reports symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which intervention is
the nurse’s priority?
A. Administer glucagon IM
B. Check blood glucose in 15 minutes
C. Provide 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate
D. Notify the provider immediately
,For a conscious client with hypoglycemia (blood glucose <70 mg/dL), the priority is to administer 15
grams of fast-acting carbohydrate (e.g., 4 oz juice, glucose tablets). Glucagon is for unconscious
clients. Checking glucose without treating delays care. This aligns with ADA guidelines and the ABCs of
emergency response—addressing immediate life-threatening conditions first.
4. A client is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Incisional pain of 5/10
B. Temperature of 99.8°F (37.7°C)
C. White blood cell count of 11,000/mm³
D. Abdominal rigidity and distention
Abdominal rigidity and distention may indicate peritonitis or bowel obstruction—surgical
emergencies. Mild pain, low-grade fever, and slightly elevated WBC are common post-op findings. The
nurse uses clinical judgment to recognize signs of deterioration and escalate care promptly, reflecting
the assessment and analysis phases of the nursing process.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water seal drainage system.
Which observation is expected?
A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
B. No tidaling in the water seal chamber
C. Gentle tidaling in the water seal chamber
D. Drainage of 200 mL/hr of bright red blood
Gentle tidaling (fluctuation of fluid level with respiration) in the water seal chamber is expected and
indicates proper lung expansion. Continuous bubbling suggests an air leak; absence of tidaling may
indicate lung re-expansion or tube obstruction; 200 mL/hr bloody drainage requires notification.
Nurses monitor chest tube systems to evaluate treatment effectiveness and detect complications.
, 6. A client with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which
medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Potassium chloride
B. Furosemide
C. Spironolactone
D. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can cause fatal dysrhythmias.
Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is a potassium-binding resin that promotes excretion
through the GI tract. Furosemide may be used for volume overload but is not first-line for acute
hyperkalemia; spironolactone and KCl would worsen the condition. The nurse anticipates interventions
based on pathophysiology and pharmacology.
7. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which
finding is most concerning?
A. Headache
B. Nausea
C. Photophobia
D. Bradycardia
Bradycardia is part of Cushing’s triad (hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations), which
indicates severe, life-threatening increased ICP. Headache, nausea, and photophobia are early signs but
less urgent. The nurse prioritizes based on ABCs and recognizes late signs as emergencies requiring
immediate intervention to prevent brain herniation.
8. A client is receiving heparin IV for deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor?
A. INR
RESPONSES
Hondros College of Nursing Comprehensive Exam Review | Core Domains: Nursing Process & Clinical
Judgment, Pharmacology & Safe Medication Administration, Adult Medical-Surgical Nursing
(Cardiovascular, Respiratory, Gastrointestinal, Renal, Endocrine, Neurological, Musculoskeletal),
Mental Health Nursing, Maternal-Newborn Nursing, Pediatric Nursing, Leadership & Professional
Practice, and Fundamentals of Nursing Care | Pre-Licensure Nursing Program Focus | Comprehensive
Final/Exit Exam Review Format
Exam Structure
Hondros College of Nursing comprehensive exams vary by course and program level. This premium
review covers core content typically assessed across multiple exams, including final course exams and
comprehensive predictor exams aligned with NCLEX® readiness.
Introduction
This Hondros Nursing Exam Premium Review for the 2026/2027 academic year provides a concentrated
review of essential nursing knowledge as structured within the Hondros curriculum. The content is
designed to reinforce critical concepts, clinical judgment, and application skills necessary for success on
course-specific exams and preparation for the NCLEX-RN®.
Answer Format
All correct answers and nursing interventions must be presented in bold and green, followed by
detailed rationales that apply the nursing process, reference evidence-based guidelines, and explain the
pathophysiological and pharmacological principles underlying safe patient care.
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV twice daily. Which
assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?
A. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
B. Peripheral edema 3+
, C. Decreased shortness of breath
D. Jugular venous distention
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure. Decreased shortness of
breath indicates reduced pulmonary congestion, a direct sign of therapeutic effect. Weight gain,
edema, and JVD suggest ongoing fluid retention and ineffective treatment. The nurse uses assessment
data to evaluate the outcome of diuretic therapy within the nursing process.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO. The client’s apical pulse is 58
beats per minute. What action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the dose as prescribed
B. Double-check the dose with another nurse
C. Hold the dose and notify the provider
D. Administer half the dose
Digoxin can cause bradycardia and heart block. The standard safety protocol requires holding the dose
if the apical pulse is <60 bpm (or per facility policy) and notifying the provider. Holding the dose
and notifying the provider prevents potential toxicity. This action demonstrates adherence to
medication safety principles and the implementation step of the nursing process.
3. A client with type 1 diabetes reports symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which intervention is
the nurse’s priority?
A. Administer glucagon IM
B. Check blood glucose in 15 minutes
C. Provide 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate
D. Notify the provider immediately
,For a conscious client with hypoglycemia (blood glucose <70 mg/dL), the priority is to administer 15
grams of fast-acting carbohydrate (e.g., 4 oz juice, glucose tablets). Glucagon is for unconscious
clients. Checking glucose without treating delays care. This aligns with ADA guidelines and the ABCs of
emergency response—addressing immediate life-threatening conditions first.
4. A client is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Incisional pain of 5/10
B. Temperature of 99.8°F (37.7°C)
C. White blood cell count of 11,000/mm³
D. Abdominal rigidity and distention
Abdominal rigidity and distention may indicate peritonitis or bowel obstruction—surgical
emergencies. Mild pain, low-grade fever, and slightly elevated WBC are common post-op findings. The
nurse uses clinical judgment to recognize signs of deterioration and escalate care promptly, reflecting
the assessment and analysis phases of the nursing process.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water seal drainage system.
Which observation is expected?
A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
B. No tidaling in the water seal chamber
C. Gentle tidaling in the water seal chamber
D. Drainage of 200 mL/hr of bright red blood
Gentle tidaling (fluctuation of fluid level with respiration) in the water seal chamber is expected and
indicates proper lung expansion. Continuous bubbling suggests an air leak; absence of tidaling may
indicate lung re-expansion or tube obstruction; 200 mL/hr bloody drainage requires notification.
Nurses monitor chest tube systems to evaluate treatment effectiveness and detect complications.
, 6. A client with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which
medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Potassium chloride
B. Furosemide
C. Spironolactone
D. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can cause fatal dysrhythmias.
Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is a potassium-binding resin that promotes excretion
through the GI tract. Furosemide may be used for volume overload but is not first-line for acute
hyperkalemia; spironolactone and KCl would worsen the condition. The nurse anticipates interventions
based on pathophysiology and pharmacology.
7. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which
finding is most concerning?
A. Headache
B. Nausea
C. Photophobia
D. Bradycardia
Bradycardia is part of Cushing’s triad (hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations), which
indicates severe, life-threatening increased ICP. Headache, nausea, and photophobia are early signs but
less urgent. The nurse prioritizes based on ABCs and recognizes late signs as emergencies requiring
immediate intervention to prevent brain herniation.
8. A client is receiving heparin IV for deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory value should
the nurse monitor?
A. INR
