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HESI LPN-to-Associate Degree in Nursing (ADN) Entrance Examination | Core Domains:
Comprehensive LPN Knowledge Review, Anatomy & Physiology, Mathematics & Dosage Calculation,
Reading Comprehension & Vocabulary, Critical Thinking & Clinical Judgment, Basic Sciences, and
Advanced Nursing Concepts (Transition Focus) | LPN-to-RN Bridge Program Admissions Focus |
High-Stakes Entrance Assessment Format
Exam Structure
The HESI LPN-to-ADN Entrance Exam for the 2026/2027 admissions cycle is a 150-question,
multiple-choice examination.
Introduction
This HESI LPN-to-ADN Entrance Exam guide for the 2026/2027 admissions cycle is specifically designed
to assess the readiness of Licensed Practical/Vocational Nurses for progression into an Associate Degree
Nursing program. The content validates foundational LPN knowledge while testing the higher-level
academic and critical thinking skills required to succeed in an accelerated RN curriculum.
Answer Format
All correct answers and nursing concepts must be presented in bold and green, followed by detailed
rationales that bridge LPN scope of practice to RN-level knowledge, emphasize clinical judgment, and
prepare candidates for the academic rigor of a nursing bridge program.
1. An LPN is reviewing a lab report that shows a serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L.
Which action should the LPN take first?
A. Administer the scheduled potassium supplement.
B. Encourage the client to eat a banana.
C. Notify the RN or provider immediately.
, D. Document the result in the medical record.
A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, a life-threatening condition that can cause
cardiac arrhythmias. While LPNs monitor and report abnormal findings, they do not independently
interpret critical values or initiate treatment. The RN or provider must be notified immediately for
further evaluation and intervention (e.g., ECG, calcium gluconate, insulin/glucose). This question tests
the LPN’s understanding of scope of practice and escalation protocols in an RN-led care model.
2. A client has an order for digoxin 0.25 mg orally daily. The available tablets are 0.125 mg
each. How many tablets should the LPN administer?
A. 1 tablet
B. 2 tablets
C. 3 tablets
D. 4 tablets
Using the formula: Desired ÷ Available = Quantity → 0.25 mg ÷ 0.125 mg = 2 tablets. Accurate
dosage calculation is a core LPN competency that must be maintained at the RN level. This item assesses
basic math skills essential for safe medication administration in any nursing role.
3. Which anatomical structure is responsible for gas exchange in the lungs?
A. Bronchi
B. Trachea
C. Alveoli
D. Pleura
The alveoli are tiny air sacs surrounded by capillaries where oxygen and carbon dioxide are
exchanged via diffusion. This foundational A&P knowledge is critical for understanding respiratory
conditions (e.g., pneumonia, COPD) and interventions (e.g., oxygen therapy, incentive spirometry) that
LPNs and RNs both manage, though RNs conduct more in-depth assessments and teaching.
,4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV. The LPN notes the client’s
blood pressure is 88/50 mm Hg. What is the most appropriate action?
A. Administer the dose as ordered.
B. Hold the dose and document the reason.
C. Notify the RN before administering.
D. Recheck the blood pressure in 15 minutes.
Furosemide is a potent diuretic that can cause hypotension. While LPNs may administer IV medications
in some states under specific conditions, they must recognize contraindications and report
concerns to the RN. Holding a medication without an order is beyond LPN scope; the RN must assess
and decide whether to hold or adjust the dose. This question evaluates judgment in medication safety
and role clarity.
5. Which term describes the process by which white blood cells engulf and destroy
pathogens?
A. Osmosis
B. Diffusion
C. Phagocytosis
D. Pinocytosis
Phagocytosis is a key immune defense mechanism where cells like neutrophils and macrophages
ingest and destroy foreign particles. Understanding this concept is essential for LPNs and RNs when
caring for clients with infections, wounds, or immunosuppression. RNs build on this by evaluating
immune status and coordinating complex care, but the foundational science is shared.
6. An LPN is reading a research article about pressure injury prevention. The article states,
“Evidence supports repositioning every 2 hours.” This is an example of:
A. Anecdotal evidence
, B. Opinion
C. Evidence-based practice
D. Policy
Evidence-based practice (EBP) integrates the best available research with clinical expertise and
patient values. LPNs implement EBP protocols (e.g., turning schedules), while RNs often participate in
EBP committees and quality improvement projects. This question assesses the LPN’s readiness to engage
with scholarly content expected in ADN programs.
7. A client’s blood glucose is 52 mg/dL. Which symptom would the LPN expect to observe?
A. Polyuria
B. Dry mucous membranes
C. Diaphoresis and tremors
D. Kussmaul respirations
Hypoglycemia (glucose <70 mg/dL) causes adrenergic symptoms like diaphoresis, tremors,
tachycardia, and anxiety due to catecholamine release. Polyuria, dry mucous membranes, and
Kussmaul respirations are signs of hyperglycemia or DKA. LPNs must recognize and report
hypoglycemia promptly—often administering oral glucose per protocol—while RNs manage more
complex diabetic emergencies.
8. Which cranial nerve is assessed by testing the sense of smell?
A. Optic (II)
B. Oculomotor (III)
C. Olfactory (I)
D. Trigeminal (V)