Airline Transport Pilot Single Engine
Airplane 135 ATS Practice Exam
**Question 1.** Under Part 135, which document must the Operator maintain to demonstrate
compliance with equipment requirements for each aircraft?
A) Airworthiness Certificate
B) Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
C) Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM)
D) Weight and Balance Report
Answer: B
Explanation: The MEL lists equipment that may be inoperative under specific conditions and is
required for Part 135 operators to ensure continued airworthiness.
**Question 2.** For a Part 135 PIC, how many total takeoffs and landings are required within
the preceding 90 days to satisfy recent flight experience for a turbine‑powered single‑engine
aircraft?
A) 3 takeoffs and 3 landings
B) 5 takeoffs and 5 landings
C) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings
D) 15 takeoffs and 15 landings
Answer: C
Explanation: The regulation mandates at least 10 takeoffs and 10 landings in the aircraft type or
a similar category within the preceding 90 days.
**Question 3.** Which of the following is a mandatory instrument for IFR operations under
Part 135?
A) Altimeter with barometric pressure setting capability
B) GPS with WAAS capability
C) VOR receiver with at least two usable VORs
, Airline Transport Pilot Single Engine
Airplane 135 ATS Practice Exam
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: IFR operations require an altimeter, at least one navigation source (VOR or GPS
with WAAS), and a reliable means of establishing position.
**Question 4.** In a Part 135 operation, the maximum Flight Duty Period (FDP) for a
single‑pilot crew operating under a 14‑hour day is:
A) 8 hours
B) 10 hours
C) 12 hours
D) 14 hours
Answer: C
Explanation: For a single‑pilot crew, the FDP may not exceed 12 hours when the duty day is 14
hours, per 14 CFR 135.247.
**Question 5.** When calculating takeoff distance for a high‑performance turboprop, which
factor has the greatest adverse effect on required runway length?
A) Decrease in temperature of 10 °C below ISA
B) Increase in pressure altitude of 2,000 ft
C) Tailwind component of 5 kt
D) Decrease in aircraft weight by 500 lb
Answer: B
Explanation: Higher pressure altitude reduces air density, significantly increasing takeoff
distance more than modest wind or weight changes.
, Airline Transport Pilot Single Engine
Airplane 135 ATS Practice Exam
**Question 6.** A PIC operating under Part 135 must obtain a certificate of authorization (COA)
for which of the following activities?
A) Carrying passengers for compensation
B) Conducting scheduled cargo flights
C) Operating a helicopter under VFR
D) Performing a Part 91 instructional flight
Answer: A
Explanation: Part 135 operators must have a COA to conduct commercial passenger operations.
**Question 7.** Which of the following is NOT a required component of a Part 135 aircraft’s
emergency equipment when operating above 10,000 ft MSL?
A) Portable oxygen for each occupant
B) Supplemental oxygen for the crew only
C) Emergency descent checklist in the flight manual
D) A pressure suit for each occupant
Answer: D
Explanation: Pressure suits are not required; portable oxygen for each occupant is mandated
above 10,000 ft.
**Question 8.** When filing a Part 135 IFR flight plan, the minimum fuel required must include:
A) Fuel to destination plus 30 minutes at normal cruise
B) Fuel to destination, an alternate, and 45 minutes at normal cruise
C) Fuel to destination, an alternate, and 30 minutes at normal cruise plus contingency
D) Fuel to destination, an alternate, 45 minutes at normal cruise, and contingency
Answer: D
, Airline Transport Pilot Single Engine
Airplane 135 ATS Practice Exam
Explanation: IFR fuel requirements under Part 135 require fuel to destination, an alternate,
45 minutes at normal cruise, and a contingency fuel amount (typically 5 % of trip fuel).
**Question 9.** In a Part 135 VFR operation at night, the minimum visibility required for takeoff
and landing at an uncontrolled airport is:
A) 1 statute mile
B) 3 statute miles
C) 5 statute miles
D) No specific visibility requirement
Answer: B
Explanation: Night VFR at uncontrolled airports requires at least 3 SM visibility for takeoff and
landing.
**Question 10.** Which of the following statements about the Minimum Descent Altitude
(MDA) for a non‑precision approach is correct?
A) The pilot may descend below MDA if visual contact with the runway is obtained.
B) The pilot must maintain MDA until the runway environment is in sight and a safe landing can
be made.
C) MDA is the same as Decision Altitude (DA).
D) MDA is only applicable to precision approaches.
Answer: B
Explanation: For non‑precision approaches, the pilot may not descend below MDA unless the
runway environment is visible and a safe landing is assured.
**Question 11.** A Part 135 operator must report a mechanical irregularity that could affect
the safety of flight within:
A) 24 hours of discovery
Airplane 135 ATS Practice Exam
**Question 1.** Under Part 135, which document must the Operator maintain to demonstrate
compliance with equipment requirements for each aircraft?
A) Airworthiness Certificate
B) Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
C) Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM)
D) Weight and Balance Report
Answer: B
Explanation: The MEL lists equipment that may be inoperative under specific conditions and is
required for Part 135 operators to ensure continued airworthiness.
**Question 2.** For a Part 135 PIC, how many total takeoffs and landings are required within
the preceding 90 days to satisfy recent flight experience for a turbine‑powered single‑engine
aircraft?
A) 3 takeoffs and 3 landings
B) 5 takeoffs and 5 landings
C) 10 takeoffs and 10 landings
D) 15 takeoffs and 15 landings
Answer: C
Explanation: The regulation mandates at least 10 takeoffs and 10 landings in the aircraft type or
a similar category within the preceding 90 days.
**Question 3.** Which of the following is a mandatory instrument for IFR operations under
Part 135?
A) Altimeter with barometric pressure setting capability
B) GPS with WAAS capability
C) VOR receiver with at least two usable VORs
, Airline Transport Pilot Single Engine
Airplane 135 ATS Practice Exam
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: IFR operations require an altimeter, at least one navigation source (VOR or GPS
with WAAS), and a reliable means of establishing position.
**Question 4.** In a Part 135 operation, the maximum Flight Duty Period (FDP) for a
single‑pilot crew operating under a 14‑hour day is:
A) 8 hours
B) 10 hours
C) 12 hours
D) 14 hours
Answer: C
Explanation: For a single‑pilot crew, the FDP may not exceed 12 hours when the duty day is 14
hours, per 14 CFR 135.247.
**Question 5.** When calculating takeoff distance for a high‑performance turboprop, which
factor has the greatest adverse effect on required runway length?
A) Decrease in temperature of 10 °C below ISA
B) Increase in pressure altitude of 2,000 ft
C) Tailwind component of 5 kt
D) Decrease in aircraft weight by 500 lb
Answer: B
Explanation: Higher pressure altitude reduces air density, significantly increasing takeoff
distance more than modest wind or weight changes.
, Airline Transport Pilot Single Engine
Airplane 135 ATS Practice Exam
**Question 6.** A PIC operating under Part 135 must obtain a certificate of authorization (COA)
for which of the following activities?
A) Carrying passengers for compensation
B) Conducting scheduled cargo flights
C) Operating a helicopter under VFR
D) Performing a Part 91 instructional flight
Answer: A
Explanation: Part 135 operators must have a COA to conduct commercial passenger operations.
**Question 7.** Which of the following is NOT a required component of a Part 135 aircraft’s
emergency equipment when operating above 10,000 ft MSL?
A) Portable oxygen for each occupant
B) Supplemental oxygen for the crew only
C) Emergency descent checklist in the flight manual
D) A pressure suit for each occupant
Answer: D
Explanation: Pressure suits are not required; portable oxygen for each occupant is mandated
above 10,000 ft.
**Question 8.** When filing a Part 135 IFR flight plan, the minimum fuel required must include:
A) Fuel to destination plus 30 minutes at normal cruise
B) Fuel to destination, an alternate, and 45 minutes at normal cruise
C) Fuel to destination, an alternate, and 30 minutes at normal cruise plus contingency
D) Fuel to destination, an alternate, 45 minutes at normal cruise, and contingency
Answer: D
, Airline Transport Pilot Single Engine
Airplane 135 ATS Practice Exam
Explanation: IFR fuel requirements under Part 135 require fuel to destination, an alternate,
45 minutes at normal cruise, and a contingency fuel amount (typically 5 % of trip fuel).
**Question 9.** In a Part 135 VFR operation at night, the minimum visibility required for takeoff
and landing at an uncontrolled airport is:
A) 1 statute mile
B) 3 statute miles
C) 5 statute miles
D) No specific visibility requirement
Answer: B
Explanation: Night VFR at uncontrolled airports requires at least 3 SM visibility for takeoff and
landing.
**Question 10.** Which of the following statements about the Minimum Descent Altitude
(MDA) for a non‑precision approach is correct?
A) The pilot may descend below MDA if visual contact with the runway is obtained.
B) The pilot must maintain MDA until the runway environment is in sight and a safe landing can
be made.
C) MDA is the same as Decision Altitude (DA).
D) MDA is only applicable to precision approaches.
Answer: B
Explanation: For non‑precision approaches, the pilot may not descend below MDA unless the
runway environment is visible and a safe landing is assured.
**Question 11.** A Part 135 operator must report a mechanical irregularity that could affect
the safety of flight within:
A) 24 hours of discovery
