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Community Health Mastery: NR-341 Final & Midterm Exam Survival Guide with Verified Answers & Rationales

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Community Health Mastery: NR-341 Final & Midterm Exam Survival Guide is the ultimate study resource for nursing students preparing for community health nursing exams. This comprehensive guide covers all NR-341 topics, including community assessment, health promotion, disease prevention, patient education, population-focused care, and clinical decision-making. Featuring midterm and final exam-style questions with verified answers and detailed rationales, it helps students understand concepts deeply and apply knowledge in real-world scenarios. With practical study tips, concise summaries, and strategic exam preparation techniques, this NR-341 study guide ensures mastery of community health nursing principles, strengthens critical thinking, and boosts exam confidence. Ideal for nursing students seeking high scores, efficient revision, and a complete review of community care concepts for

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Uploaded on
January 1, 2026
Number of pages
26
Written in
2025/2026
Type
Exam (elaborations)
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Community Health Mastery: NR-341 Final
Exam Survival Guide 2026-2027

1. Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of left-sided
heart failure?
a. Peripheral edema
b. Dyspnea on exertion
c. Jugular vein distention
d. Hepatomegaly
Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion, causing
dyspnea, especially during activity.
2. A patient presents with serum potassium of 6.2 mEq/L. Which
ECG change would you expect?
a. ST-segment depression
b. Peaked T waves
c. U waves
d. Prolonged QT interval
Hyperkalemia increases myocardial excitability, resulting in
peaked T waves.
3. Which acid-base imbalance is indicated by pH 7.25, PaCO2 55
mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L?
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis
Low pH with elevated PaCO2 indicates respiratory acidosis.
4. A patient taking furosemide should be monitored for which
electrolyte imbalance?
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypermagnesemia

, c. Hypokalemia
d. Hypernatremia
Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion, risking
hypokalemia.
5. Which of the following is a complication of uncontrolled
diabetes mellitus?
a. Peripheral neuropathy
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Addison’s disease
d. Hypoparathyroidism
Chronic hyperglycemia damages nerves, causing peripheral
neuropathy.
6. The most common cause of hypovolemic shock is:
a. Heart failure
b. Severe hemorrhage
c. Sepsis
d. Myocardial infarction
Loss of intravascular volume reduces perfusion, leading to
hypovolemic shock.
7. A patient with COPD presents with pH 7.36, PaCO2 55 mmHg,
HCO3 32 mEq/L. This is an example of:
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Compensated respiratory acidosis
d. Metabolic acidosis
The pH is near normal due to renal compensation (elevated
HCO3).
8. Which lab value is most important to monitor in a patient
receiving warfarin?
a. WBC
b. INR

, c. Platelets
d. Creatinine
Warfarin’s effect is measured by INR to ensure therapeutic
anticoagulation.
9. Select all that apply: Risk factors for developing pressure ulcers
include:
a. Immobility
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Malnutrition
d. Regular ambulation
Immobility, poor nutrition, and diabetes increase risk for skin
breakdown.
10. A patient with hyperthyroidism may present with:
a. Bradycardia
b. Weight gain
c. Heat intolerance
d. Cold intolerance
Hyperthyroidism increases metabolism, causing heat
intolerance.
11. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely in a patient
with chronic diarrhea?
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hypernatremia
c. Hypercalcemia
d. Hypermagnesemia
Loss of potassium-rich fluids leads to hypokalemia.
12. A patient with end-stage renal disease is at risk for which
complication?
a. Hyperphosphatemia
b. Hypokalemia
c. Hypernatremia
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