West Coast EMT Block Exam 3 Questions and
Correct Answers (100% COMPLETE
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update) 2026
1. A 68-year-old male with sudden onset of right facial droop, slurred speech,
and left arm weakness most likely has:
A. Seizure
B. Stroke ✔
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Migraine
Rationale: Classic stroke symptoms (facial droop, speech difficulty, one-sided weakness).
Always consider stroke until proven otherwise.
2. The first step in managing an actively seizing patient is:
A. Administer naloxone
B. Protect the patient’s airway ✔
C. Secure IV access
D. Check blood sugar
Rationale: Ensuring airway patency and patient safety are top priority.
**3. A 45-year-old with crushing chest pain radiating to the jaw should be given:
A. Aspirin**
B. Nitroglycerin
C. Both A & B ✔
D. Epinephrine
, Rationale: Aspirin reduces clot formation; nitroglycerin improves coronary perfusion if not
hypotensive.
4. Normal end-tidal CO₂ values (EtCO₂) in a spontaneously breathing adult are:
A. 10–20 mmHg
B. 35–45 mmHg ✔
C. 50–60 mmHg
D. 70–80 mmHg
Rationale: Normal CO₂ reflects adequate ventilation and perfusion.
5. The correct ratio of compressions to breaths for adult CPR is:
A. 15:2
B. 30:2 ✔
C. 10:1
D. 2:30
Rationale: AHA standard for adult CPR.
6. A patient with kussmaul respirations is most likely in:
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis ✔
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Neurogenic shock
Rationale: Deep, rapid breathing seen in metabolic acidosis (e.g., DKA).
7. The most definitive sign of adequate ventilation when using a BVM is:
A. Rise and fall of the chest
B. Pulse oximetry > 94%
C. End-tidal CO₂ detector color change ✔
D. Strong pulse
Correct Answers (100% COMPLETE
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ | 100%
satisfaction guarantee with complete
solutions, all Answers Included (Latest
update) 2026
1. A 68-year-old male with sudden onset of right facial droop, slurred speech,
and left arm weakness most likely has:
A. Seizure
B. Stroke ✔
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Migraine
Rationale: Classic stroke symptoms (facial droop, speech difficulty, one-sided weakness).
Always consider stroke until proven otherwise.
2. The first step in managing an actively seizing patient is:
A. Administer naloxone
B. Protect the patient’s airway ✔
C. Secure IV access
D. Check blood sugar
Rationale: Ensuring airway patency and patient safety are top priority.
**3. A 45-year-old with crushing chest pain radiating to the jaw should be given:
A. Aspirin**
B. Nitroglycerin
C. Both A & B ✔
D. Epinephrine
, Rationale: Aspirin reduces clot formation; nitroglycerin improves coronary perfusion if not
hypotensive.
4. Normal end-tidal CO₂ values (EtCO₂) in a spontaneously breathing adult are:
A. 10–20 mmHg
B. 35–45 mmHg ✔
C. 50–60 mmHg
D. 70–80 mmHg
Rationale: Normal CO₂ reflects adequate ventilation and perfusion.
5. The correct ratio of compressions to breaths for adult CPR is:
A. 15:2
B. 30:2 ✔
C. 10:1
D. 2:30
Rationale: AHA standard for adult CPR.
6. A patient with kussmaul respirations is most likely in:
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis ✔
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Neurogenic shock
Rationale: Deep, rapid breathing seen in metabolic acidosis (e.g., DKA).
7. The most definitive sign of adequate ventilation when using a BVM is:
A. Rise and fall of the chest
B. Pulse oximetry > 94%
C. End-tidal CO₂ detector color change ✔
D. Strong pulse
