APM PMQ ACTUAL EXAM WITH Question
and CORRECT DETAILED answers 100%
LATEST UPDATE 2025/26
1. What is the primary purpose of a Project Brief?
A. To plan detailed activities
B. To provide high-level overview of project objectives
C. To manage team conflict
D. To evaluate supplier performance
Answer: B
Rationale: The Project Brief summarises the project’s objectives, scope, constraints,
assumptions, and key stakeholders. It provides clarity at an early stage.
2. A stakeholder is best defined as:
A. Anyone affected by the project
B. Only senior managers
C. The project team
D. The sponsor only
Answer: A
Rationale: Stakeholders include all individuals or groups who can affect or are affected by the
project.
3. What does “scope creep” refer to?
A. Delays in schedule
B. Uncontrolled changes in project scope
C. Budget increases due to inflation
D. Resource shortages
Answer: B
Rationale: Scope creep happens when additional requirements are added without corresponding
adjustments to time, cost, or quality.
,4. A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is used to:
A. Assign people to tasks
B. Break the project into manageable chunks
C. Control quality
D. Track risks
Answer: B
Rationale: A WBS decomposes the project scope into smaller, manageable parts.
5. What is the purpose of a Risk Register?
A. Record all stakeholders
B. List and manage risks
C. Track defects
D. Monitor project schedule
Answer: B
Rationale: The Risk Register identifies risks, their impact, probability, and planned responses.
6. What technique is used to estimate activity sequence and duration?
A. SWOT Analysis
B. Gantt Chart
C. Monte Carlo Simulation
D. Critical Path Analysis
Answer: D
Rationale: Critical Path Analysis identifies the longest path of dependent activities to determine
project duration.
7. What defines ‘Quality’ in project management?
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Meeting the needs and expectations of stakeholders
C. Early completion
D. High technical complexity
Answer: B
Rationale: Quality is the degree to which requirements are fulfilled, satisfying stakeholders.
, 8. Which document formally authorises a project?
A. Project Brief
B. Project Initiation Document (PID)
C. Business Case
D. Project Charter
Answer: D
Rationale: The Project Charter authorises the project and provides the project manager with
authority.
9. What is “earned value” in project management?
A. Profit on a contract
B. Budgeted cost of work performed
C. Total project cost
D. Variance of schedule
Answer: B
Rationale: Earned value measures work performed against the project plan.
10. The formula to calculate Schedule Variance (SV) is:
A. EV – AC
B. EV – PV
C. PV – AC
D. AC – EV
Answer: B
Rationale: Schedule Variance = Earned Value (EV) – Planned Value (PV). Positive means
ahead of schedule.
11. Change control is important because:
A. It authorises extra budget
B. Manages changes to scope, time or cost
C. Removes project risks
D. Eliminates stakeholder input
and CORRECT DETAILED answers 100%
LATEST UPDATE 2025/26
1. What is the primary purpose of a Project Brief?
A. To plan detailed activities
B. To provide high-level overview of project objectives
C. To manage team conflict
D. To evaluate supplier performance
Answer: B
Rationale: The Project Brief summarises the project’s objectives, scope, constraints,
assumptions, and key stakeholders. It provides clarity at an early stage.
2. A stakeholder is best defined as:
A. Anyone affected by the project
B. Only senior managers
C. The project team
D. The sponsor only
Answer: A
Rationale: Stakeholders include all individuals or groups who can affect or are affected by the
project.
3. What does “scope creep” refer to?
A. Delays in schedule
B. Uncontrolled changes in project scope
C. Budget increases due to inflation
D. Resource shortages
Answer: B
Rationale: Scope creep happens when additional requirements are added without corresponding
adjustments to time, cost, or quality.
,4. A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is used to:
A. Assign people to tasks
B. Break the project into manageable chunks
C. Control quality
D. Track risks
Answer: B
Rationale: A WBS decomposes the project scope into smaller, manageable parts.
5. What is the purpose of a Risk Register?
A. Record all stakeholders
B. List and manage risks
C. Track defects
D. Monitor project schedule
Answer: B
Rationale: The Risk Register identifies risks, their impact, probability, and planned responses.
6. What technique is used to estimate activity sequence and duration?
A. SWOT Analysis
B. Gantt Chart
C. Monte Carlo Simulation
D. Critical Path Analysis
Answer: D
Rationale: Critical Path Analysis identifies the longest path of dependent activities to determine
project duration.
7. What defines ‘Quality’ in project management?
A. Cost effectiveness
B. Meeting the needs and expectations of stakeholders
C. Early completion
D. High technical complexity
Answer: B
Rationale: Quality is the degree to which requirements are fulfilled, satisfying stakeholders.
, 8. Which document formally authorises a project?
A. Project Brief
B. Project Initiation Document (PID)
C. Business Case
D. Project Charter
Answer: D
Rationale: The Project Charter authorises the project and provides the project manager with
authority.
9. What is “earned value” in project management?
A. Profit on a contract
B. Budgeted cost of work performed
C. Total project cost
D. Variance of schedule
Answer: B
Rationale: Earned value measures work performed against the project plan.
10. The formula to calculate Schedule Variance (SV) is:
A. EV – AC
B. EV – PV
C. PV – AC
D. AC – EV
Answer: B
Rationale: Schedule Variance = Earned Value (EV) – Planned Value (PV). Positive means
ahead of schedule.
11. Change control is important because:
A. It authorises extra budget
B. Manages changes to scope, time or cost
C. Removes project risks
D. Eliminates stakeholder input
