Central venous catheters Study guides, Class notes & Summaries
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PATHO FINAL TB complete test A+ graded 2023-2024 latest update
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PATHO FINAL TB complete test A+ graded 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
A 78-kg patient with septic shock has a pulse rate of 120 beats/min with low central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wedge pressure. Urine output has been 30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. Which order by the health care provider should the nurse question? 
a. 
Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV. 
b. 
Increase normal saline infusion to 250 mL/hr. 
c. 
Give hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV. 
d. 
Titrate norepinephrine to keep...
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ATI Med-Surg Cardiovascular Exam Questions and Answers
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ATI Med-Surg Cardiovascular Exam 
Questions and Answers 
Troponin T - Answer-<0.2 ng/mL 
elevation detectable after MI 3-5 hrs 
Troponin I - Answer-<0.03 ng/mL 
elevation detectable after MI 3 hrs 
Myoglobin - Answer-<90 mcg/L 
elevation detectable after MI 2 hrs 
Echocardiogram - Answer-ultrasound of the heart 
indications: 
cardiomyopathy 
heart failure 
angina 
MI 
lay on LEFT side during procedure, takes 1 hr 
Stress Testing - Answer-measures workload of the heart and how it tolerat...
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CNN Exam- Vascular Access 26 Questions with Verified Answers,100% CORRECT
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CNN Exam- Vascular Access 26 Questions with Verified Answers 
 
 
List when patients should be referred for evaluation when an access clot is suspected - CORRECT ANSWER - Any abnormal finding with measurement techniques such as U/S or MRA should NOT prompt immediate evaluation 
- It is better to obtain serial measurements and conduct a trend analysis (i.e if each measurement suggests less flow than suspect stenosis) 
- AV Grafts- 
- Flow rate of less than 600 ml/min = referral 
-Fistulas- 
- Flo...
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ONCC Practice Tests (OCN - Care Continuum) Already Graded A+
- Exam (elaborations) • 20 pages • 2023
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Which of the following is an advantage of an implanted vascular access device over a tunneled central 
venous catheter? 
Decreased risk of infection 
Short-term use 
Low cost of insertion 
Unlimited ability to access 
Decreased risk of infection 
Answer: Implanted ports have a lower risk of infection than tunneled central venous catheters. 
Reference: Camp-Sorrell, D., & Matey, L. (Eds.). (2017). Access device standards of practice for oncology 
nursing. Pittsburgh, PA: Oncology Nursing Society,...
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NCLEX-PN NGN Exam Test Bank SOLVED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS with Rationales GRADED A + UPDATED 2023/2024
- Exam (elaborations) • 114 pages • 2023
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NCLEX-PN NGN Exam Test Bank 
 
1.	The nurse is caring for a client scheduled for removal of a pituitary tumor using the transsphenoidal approach. The nurse should be particularly alert for: 
 
 
A.	Nasal congestion 
B.	Abdominal tenderness 
C.	Muscle tetany 
D.	Oliguria 
 
 
Answer A: Removal of the pituitary gland is usually done by a transsphenoidal approach, through the nose. Nasal congestion further interferes with the airway. Answers B, C, and D are not correct because they are not directl...
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NURS 3320 Test Bank Intravenous Therapy Questions and Answers and Rationale,100% CORRECT
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NURS 3320 Test Bank Intravenous Therapy Questions and Answers and Rationale 
1.	You are training nurses at your hospital to insert midline catheters. What would you teach the nurses about how many inches of the catheter should be inserted into the required site and for how long can it be used? 
A)	1 to 3 inches, used for up to 3 weeks 
B)	3 to 6 inches, used for up to 4 weeks 
C)	7 to 8 inches, used for up to 5 weeks 
D)	8 to 9 inches, used for up to 6 weeks 
Ans:	B 
Feedback: 
A midline cathete...
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IV therapeutics Testbank Exam Questions & Answers. A+ Rated
- Exam (elaborations) • 52 pages • 2023
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IV therapeutics Testbank Exam Questions & Answers. A+ Rated, A labor and delivery nurse is caring for a client who has just received epidural anesthesia prior to cesarean section. For which potential adverse effects of epidural pain medication should the nurse observe? 
 
a. Urinary retention, pruritus, and hypotension 
b. Pruritus, nausea, and urinary incontinence 
c. Polyuria, hypertension, and respiratory depression 
d. Respiratory depression, hypertension, and hemiparesis - a. Urinary retent...
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DaVita Final exam answered (LATEST).
- Exam (elaborations) • 25 pages • 2022
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DaVita Final exam answered (LATEST) 
 
 
Per Davita policy, fever and chills is defined as 
a.	Any temperature greater than 99°F or increase over baseline of 1°F with symptoms 
b.	Any temperature greater than 99°F or increase over baseline of 1°F without symptoms 
c.	Any temperature greater than 100°F or increase over baseline of 2°F with symptoms 
d.	Any temperature greater than 100°F or increase over baseline of 2°F without symptoms - Ans-c. Any temperature greater than 100°F...
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CNSC Exam Questions and Answers 100% Pass
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CNSC Exam Questions and Answers 100% Pass 
A pregnant patient is admitted with hyperemesis gravidarium (HG). Which of the 
following is a clinical indication for PN use? -Answer-Intolerance to EN trial and 
supportive care measures 
Rapid intravenous infusion of potassium phosphate may result in -Answer- 
Thrombophlebitis 
most common complication associated with PN administration? -Answer-Hyperglycemia 
The preferred approach for subcutaneous insulin administration -Answer-Basal-bolus 
insulin ...
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ATI Med-Surg Cardiovascular Exam Questions and Answers
- Exam (elaborations) • 17 pages • 2024
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ATI Med-Surg Cardiovascular Exam 
Questions and Answers 
Troponin T - Answer-<0.2 ng/mL 
elevation detectable after MI 3-5 hrs 
Troponin I - Answer-<0.03 ng/mL 
elevation detectable after MI 3 hrs 
Myoglobin - Answer-<90 mcg/L 
elevation detectable after MI 2 hrs 
Echocardiogram - Answer-ultrasound of the heart 
indications: 
cardiomyopathy 
heart failure 
angina 
MI 
lay on LEFT side during procedure, takes 1 hr 
Stress Testing - Answer-measures workload of the heart and how it tolerat...