Emt Basic Exam 2 All Versions 2025 | Latest And Accurate Real Exam Questions With Detailed Answers | Verified For Guaranteed Pass | Latest Update

Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock? A. 28-year-old female with pale skin and rapid, shallow respirations B. 32-year-old male with anxiety and a systolic BP of 110 mm Hg C. 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils D. 23-year-old restless male with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia Rationale: Absent radial pulses and dilated pupils are signs of inadequate perfusion—hallmarks of decompensated shock. One of the primary waste products of normal cellular metabolism that must be removed from the body by the lungs is: A. Pyruvic acid B. Lactic acid C. Carbon monoxide D. Carbon dioxide Rationale: CO₂ is a major metabolic waste product removed through respiration. Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is MOST correct? A. Each subsequent exposure often produces a more severe reaction B. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately upon first exposure C. It is caused by immune system failure from toxins D. Subsequent reactions are less severe Rationale: Anaphylaxis worsens with repeated exposure due to sensitization. When assessing a patient with signs of shock, it is MOST important to remember that: A. Respirations are deep in early shock B. Multiple fractures are the leading cause of hypovolemic shock C. Irreversible shock responds well to transfusion D. Blood pressure is often the last measurable change Rationale: BP may remain normal until late in shock, so rely on other signs first. When hypoperfusion is sensed, the sympathetic nervous system releases epinephrine, causing: A. Restlessness B. Vasodilation C. Tachycardia D. Tachypnea Rationale: Epinephrine increases heart rate to maintain perfusion. Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock? A. Liver laceration B. Severe vomiting C. Excessive sweating D. Repeated diarrhea Rationale: Liver injuries can lead to massive internal bleeding. Cardiogenic shock may result from all of the following EXCEPT: A. Increased afterload B. Increased preload C. Poor contractility D. Heart attack Rationale: Increased preload improves cardiac output; it's not a cause of shock. A 56-year-old male with rapid, irregular pulse, shallow respirations, and lowBP likely has: A. Ruptured aortic aneurysm B. Acute MI C. Severe septic shock D. Cardiogenic shock Rationale: Symptoms and history suggest heart failure from MI. If a patient in anaphylactic shock doesn’t improve after initial epinephrine, you should: A. Transport immediately B. Call for paramedics C. Consider asthma D. Repeat epinephrine after consulting medical control Rationale: Re-administration may be necessary under medical guidance. Which condition would NOT make you suspect shock? A. Anaphylaxis B. Heart attack C. Severe infection D. Tachycardia Rationale: Tachycardia is a sign of shock, not a cause. Shock is the result of: A. Blood vessel constriction B. Hypoperfusion to cells C. Homeostasis maintenance D. Temporary organ dysfunction Rationale: Shock stems from inadequate cellular perfusion. While transporting a stable trauma patient with 20 min to hospital, you should: A. Reassess in 5 min B. Take vitals in 15 min C. Call for ALS D. Do secondary assessment Rationale: Reassessment every 5 minutes is standard for unstable or trauma patients. A 59-year-old male with confusion, hypotension, and absent radial pulses needs: A. Water to drink B. Head-to-toe exam C. Repeat BP in 5 mins D. Immediate transport Rationale: These are signs of shock requiring urgent hospital care. Septic shock develops from: A. Poor vessel function and volume loss B. Blood vessel constriction C. Weak heart contractions D. Nervous system injury Rationale: Infections cause vasodilation and capillary leakage leading to volume loss. A construction worker with spine injury, hypotension, and warm, dry skin should receive: A. Assisted ventilation, thermal management, and leg elevation B. Oxygen and blankets only C. Oxygen and head elevation D. Just immobilization and rapid transport Rationale: Warm skin and bradycardia suggest neurogenic shock needing specific support. A woman fainted after emotional trauma. What is your first concern? A. Take vitals B. Persuade transport C. Offer emotional support D. Check for injuries from the fall Rationale: Fainting can cause trauma; assess for injuries first. A patient with a knife impaled in chest — first priority before approach: A. Follow standard precautions B. Get a general impression C. Interview bystanders D. Request ALS Rationale: Safety comes first—use PPE. Unresponsive, pulseless, apneic patient — what to do first: A. Start CPR and attach AED ASAP B. Ask about health history C. Request paramedics D. Transport immediatelyRationale: Early CPR and defibrillation improve survival. What part of assessment gathers info about chief complaint and history? A. History taking B. Primary assessment C. General impression D. Secondary assessment Rationale: History taking focuses on medical background and events. An adult with no breathing difficulty will: A. Breathe 20–24 breaths/min B. Speak in full sentences C. Sit in tripod position D. Show accessory muscle use Rationale: Full speech without pauses indicates good respiratory effort. Diastolic pressure represents: A. Pressure difference during cardiac cycle B. Average arterial pressure C. Pressure during contraction D. Minimum pressure always present in arteries Rationale: Diastolic is the resting arterial pressure. Goal of primary assessment is to: A. Rapidly treat life-threatening conditions B. Decide trauma center need C. Identify medical vs trauma D. Determine need for head-to-toe exam Rationale: Focus is on identifying and fixing life threats quickly. When light is shone into one pupil, the other should: A. Enlarge B. Dilate C. Constrict D. Stay the same Rationale: Pupils constrict together—this is the consensual response. 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain and irregular pulse — best action: A. Document and assess further B. Apply cardiac monitor C. Assume normal for age D. Transport immediately and call paramedic Rationale: Irregular pulse and chest pain indicate possible arrhythmia/MI. After primary assessment and lifesaving measures, you should next: A. Take vitals and board B. Do rapid body scan and transport C. Immobilize and then check vitals D. Focus only on injury areas Rationale: A rapid head-to-toe scan ensures you don’t miss critical injuries. Which statement about MOI is correct? A. Minor MOI = no trauma B. MOI helps predict injury severity C. MOI tells exact injury site D. Significant MOI always means death Rationale: MOI provides clues but doesn't guarantee outcomes. Pressure from left ventricle contraction is called: A. Pulse pressure B. Systolic pressure C. BP D. Diastolic pressure Rationale: Systolic is the pressure when the heart contracts. To open airway in unresponsive trauma patient, use: A. Head tilt-chin lift B. Neck lift C. Tongue-jaw lift D. Jaw-thrust maneuver Rationale: Jaw-thrust protects the cervical spine.