NUR 6001 Exam 1 Advanced Health
Master Study Companion: In-Depth
Exam Review, Updated Practice
Tests, and Knowledge Assessment
1. A 59-year-old male presents to the clinic reporting “black stools” for the past
24 hours. He believes he may have ulcerative colitis. Which of the following is
the most accurate way for the nurse practitioner to document the chief
complaint?
A. JM is a 59-year-old male here for having “black stools” for the past 24 hours.
B. JM came into the clinic complaining of black stools for the past 24 hours.
C. JM is a 59-year-old male here for “ulcerative colitis.”
D. JM states he has ulcerative colitis and wants evaluation.
• Correct Answer: A. JM is a 59-year-old male here for having “black stools” for the
past 24 hours.
Rationale: The chief complaint should reflect the patient’s own words and focus
on the symptom prompting the visit rather than a self-diagnosis.
2. A patient reports abdominal pain for one week. What is the most appropriate
initial response by the nurse practitioner?
A. “We’ll talk more about that later in the interview.”
B. “Have you ever had any children?”
C. “What have you had to eat in the last 4 hours?”
D. “Can you point to where it hurts?”
Correct Answer: D. “Can you point to where it hurts?”
Rationale: Pain assessment begins with localization before exploring other
characteristics.
3. A 29-year-old woman reports “excruciating back pain.” What is the most
appropriate nurse response?
A. “How does your family react to your pain?”
B. “That must be terrible. You probably pinched a nerve.”
C. “I’ve had back pain myself and it can be excruciating.”
D. “How would you say the pain affects your ability to do your daily activities?”
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Correct Answer: D. “How would you say the pain affects your ability to do your daily
activities?”
Rationale: Pain assessment should focus on functional impact and be patient-centered.
4. A patient denies any childhood illnesses. Which documentation is most
accurate?
A. Patient denies usual childhood illnesses.
B. Patient states he was a “very healthy” child.
C. Patient states sister had measles, but he did not.
D. Patient denies measles, mumps, rubella, chickenpox, pertussis, rheumatic fever, and
polio.
Correct Answer: D. Patient denies measles, mumps, rubella, chickenpox, pertussis,
rheumatic fever, and polio.
Rationale: Accurate documentation requires specificity.
5. A patient reports a penicillin allergy. What is the nurse practitioner’s best
response?
A. “Are you allergic to any other drugs?”
B. “How often have you received penicillin?”
C. “I’ll write your allergy on your chart.”
D. “Please describe what happens to you when you take penicillin.”
Correct Answer: D. “Please describe what happens to you when you take penicillin.”
Rationale: Determining the specific allergic reaction is essential for clinical decision-
making.
6. Which condition is most important to include in a family history?
A. Emphysema
B. Head trauma
C. Mental illness
D. Fractured bones
Correct Answer: C. Mental illness
Rationale: Family history includes hereditary or familial conditions such as mental illness,
diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and genetic disorders.
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7. A patient states: “No chest pain, palpitations, orthopnea, or shortness of
breath.” This information belongs in which section?
A. Chief complaint
B. Present illness
C. Personal history
D. Review of systems
Correct Answer: D. Review of systems
Rationale: The review of systems systematically screens for symptoms across body
systems.
8. Which of the following is subjective data about skin?
A. Skin appears dry
B. No obvious lesions noted
C. Denies color change
D. Lesion noted on right arm
Correct Answer: C. Denies color change
Rationale: Subjective data refers to patient-reported information.
9. A patient had a coronary artery stent placed in 1999. This should be
documented under:
A. Medical history
B. Surgical history
C. Obstetric history
D. Psychiatric history
Correct Answer: B. Surgical history
Rationale: Stent placement is an invasive interventional procedure and belongs under
surgical history.
10. Hair becomes gray or white with age primarily due to:
A. Decreased pigmentation
B. Thyroid dysfunction
C. Reduced phagocytes
D. Increased keratin
Correct Answer: A. Decreased pigmentation
Rationale: Aging leads to decreased melanocyte activity and reduced melanin
production.
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11. Which best defines the ABCDE rule for melanoma?
A. Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter >6 mm, Evolution
B. Actinic damage, Basal growth, Color blue, Depth, Extension
C. Asymmetry, Biopsy, Color loss, Dermal spread, Enlargement
D. Area, Borders, Clarity, Density, Edema
Correct Answer: A. Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter >6 mm,
Evolution
Rationale: The ABCDE rule is a standardized melanoma screening tool.
12. A fluid-filled lesion less than 1 cm is called:
A. Macule
B. Papule
C. Vesicle
D. Nodule
Correct Answer: C. Vesicle
Rationale: A vesicle is a small, fluid-filled lesion less than 1 cm.
13. A full-thickness pressure ulcer extending into subcutaneous tissue but not
muscle is classified as:
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
Correct Answer: C. Stage 3
Rationale: Stage 3 pressure injuries involve full-thickness skin loss extending into
subcutaneous tissue without muscle involvement.
14. Transient, itchy, raised lesions that come and go are most consistent with:
A. Psoriasis
B. Urticaria
C. Purpura
D. Eczema
Correct Answer: B. Urticaria
Rationale: Urticaria are transient, pruritic wheals caused by localized edema.