ATI OB PRACTICE TEST EXAM TEST BANK WITH ALL VERSIONS OF THE EXAM WITH ALLMODULES COVERED | ACCURATE AND VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS FOR GUARANTEED PASS| LATEST UPDATE

A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of Rho (D) immunoglobulin. The nurse should understand that the purpose of this injection is to prevent which newborn complication? A. Hyperbilirubinemia B. Hydrops fetalis C. Biliary atresia D. Galactosemia Correct Answer: B. Hydrops fetalis Rationale: Rho (D) immunoglobulin prevents Rh sensitization, thereby avoiding severe hemolytic disease of the newborn such as hydrops fetalis. What is a hemolytic disorder of the newborn that occurs as a result of Rh incompatibility? A. Biliary atresia B. Galactosemia C. Hyperbilirubinemia D. Chloasma Correct Answer: C. Hyperbilirubinemia Rationale: Rh incompatibility causes hemolysis of fetal RBCs, leading to elevated bilirubin levels (hyperbilirubinemia). What is a congenital structural anomaly in the newborn that is not prevented by Rho (D) immunoglobulin? A. Hyperbilirubinemia B. Hydrops fetalis C. Biliary atresia D. Ballottement Correct Answer: C. Biliary atresia Rationale: Biliary atresia is a structural defect unrelated to Rh incompatibility and cannot be prevented by Rho (D) immunoglobulin. What is a cause of hemolytic jaundice in the newborn that is not prevented by Rho (D) immunoglobulin? A. Galactosemia B. Hydrops fetalis C. Chloasma D. Lightening Correct Answer: A. Galactosemia Rationale: Galactosemia is a metabolic disorder causing jaundice but is not related to Rh incompatibility. What is the passive movement of the fetus when the examiner gently pushes on it during a vaginal examination? A. Lightening B. Ballottement C. Quickening D. Engagement Correct Answer: B. Ballottement Rationale: Ballottement refers to the rebound of the fetus when tapped during examination. What is the beginning of fetal descent and engagement in the maternal pelvis? A. Quickening B. Lightening C. Chloasma D. Ballottement Correct Answer: B. Lightening Rationale: Lightening occurs as the fetus descends into the pelvis near term. What is the fluttering sensation felt early in pregnancy due to fetal movement? A. Ballottement B. Lightening C. Quickening D. Lordosis Correct Answer: C. Quickening Rationale: Quickening is the first maternal perception of fetal movement. What is the brown facial hyperpigmentation seen during pregnancy? A. Melasma B. Chloasma C. Linea nigra D. Striae gravidarum Correct Answer: B. Chloasma Rationale: Chloasma (“mask of pregnancy”) results from hormonal changes. In a breech presentation, fetal heart tones are best auscultated in which abdominal quadrant? A. Left lower quadrant B. Right lower quadrant C. Left upper quadrant D. Right upper quadrant Correct Answer: D. Right upper quadrant Rationale: In breech presentation, the fetal back is higher, so FHTs are heard in the upper abdomen. Which test is a screening tool for Rh incompatibility? A. Direct Coombs test B. Indirect Coombs test C. Kleihauer-Betke test D. CBC Correct Answer: B. Indirect Coombs test Rationale: The indirect Coombs test detects maternal antibodies against Rh-positive blood. Which diagnostic method is used to identify cephalopelvic disproportion later in pregnancy? A. MRI B. CT scan C. Abdominal ultrasonography D. X-ray Correct Answer: C. Abdominal ultrasonography Rationale: Ultrasound helps assess fetal size and pelvic adequacy. A nurse is teaching a client undergoing amniocentesis at 15 weeks. What is the purpose of this test? A. Determine fetal sex only B. Detect maternal infections C. Identify chromosomal anomalies and neural tube defects D. Measure uterine contractions Correct Answer: C. Identify chromosomal anomalies and neural tube defects Rationale: Amniocentesis detects genetic disorders and neural tube defects via amniotic fluid analysis. A nurse is caring for a client with a negative rubella titer. What is the next step? A. Administer vaccine immediately B. No action needed C. Vaccinate after delivery D. Start antiviral therapy Correct Answer: C. Vaccinate after delivery Rationale: Rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy; it is given postpartum. The fetal heartbeat is audible by Doppler at what gestational age? A. 4–6 weeks B. 6–8 weeks C. 8–17 weeks D. 20–24 weeks Correct Answer: C. 8–17 weeks Rationale: Doppler can detect fetal heart tones starting around 8–10 weeks. When is the sex of the fetus determined? A. First trimester B. At conception C. Second trimester D. Third trimester Correct Answer: B. At conception Rationale: Genetic sex is determined at fertilization. Lanugo covers the fetus at what time? A. Week 10–12 B. Week 20 and disappears by week 36 C. Week 30–32 D. At birth Correct Answer: B. Week 20 and disappears by week 36 Rationale: Lanugo appears mid-pregnancy and sheds before birth. When does quickening occur? A. 8–10 weeks B. 10–12 weeks C. 14–16 weeks (multiparous) or 18+ weeks (nulliparous) D. 30 weeks Correct Answer: C. 14–16 weeks (multiparous) or 18+ weeks (nulliparous) Rationale: Timing varies based on parity. What is the recommended weight gain for overweight pregnant clients (BMI 25–29.9)? A. 5–10 lb B. 10–15 lb C. 15–25 lb D. 30–40 lb Correct Answer: C. 15–25 lb Rationale: Overweight clients should gain moderately to reduce complications. What is the recommended weight gain for normal BMI (18.5–24.9) with a single fetus? A. 10–15 lb B. 25–35 lb C. 35–45 lb D. 15–20 lb Correct Answer: B. 25–35 lb Rationale: This range supports fetal growth and maternal health. What is the appropriate weekly weight gain for underweight clients in 2nd and 3rd trimesters? A. 0.5 lb/week B. 1.1 lb/week C. 2 lb/week D. 0.2 lb/week Correct Answer: B. 1.1 lb/week Rationale: Underweight clients need higher caloric intake for fetal growth. What is the recommended total weight gain for obese clients (BMI 30)? A. 10–15 lb B. 11–20 lb C. 25–30 lb D. 30–40 lb Correct Answer: B. 11–20 lb Rationale: Lower weight gain reduces maternal and fetal risks. What test assesses fetal well-being using breathing, movement, and amniotic fluid? A. NST B. CST C. Biophysical profile D. Ultrasound only Correct Answer: C. Biophysical profile Rationale: BPP combines ultrasound and NST findings. Hearing loss in a newborn is associated with which maternal infections? A. HIV and hepatitis B. Rubella and CMV C. Influenza and varicella D. TB and malaria Correct Answer: B. Rubella and CMV Rationale: These infections can cause congenital hearing loss. Smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of which complications? A. Hypertension only B. Diabetes C. IUGR, preterm birth, placental issues D. Hyperemesis Correct Answer: C. IUGR, preterm birth, placental issues Rationale: Smoking reduces oxygen delivery to the fetus. Congenital defects like VSD and CNS abnormalities are associated with: A. Smoking B. Alcohol abuse C. Iron deficiency D. Exercise Correct Answer: B. Alcohol abuse Rationale: Alcohol is teratogenic and affects fetal development. A client is positioned in Semi-Fowler’s with hip elevated during which test? A. Biophysical profile B. Nonstress test C. Amniocentesis D. Ultrasound Correct Answer: B. Nonstress test Rationale: This position prevents supine hypotension and improves perfusion. Why is ultrasound done before amniocentesis? A. Measure BP B. Detect contractions C. Guide needle placement and increase safety D. Determine fetal sex Correct Answer: C. Guide needle placement and increase safety Rationale: Ultrasound ensures accurate and safe needle insertion.