ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY AN INTEGRATIVE APPROACH, 5TH CND EDITION H. BARLOW - TEST BANK

1. What do we call the systematic evaluation of psychological, biological, and social factors in a person with a possible mental disorder? a. clinical interpretation b. clinical diagnosis c. clinical assessment d. clinical standardization ANSWER: c 2. Which of the following is NOT part of a clinical assessment? a. evaluation of financial factors b. evaluation of biological factors c. evaluation of social factors d. evaluation of psychological factors ANSWER: a 3. What do we call the process of determining whether an individual’s symptoms meet the criteria for a specific psychological disorder? a. prognosis b. diagnosis c. analysis d. classification ANSWER: b 4. What is the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders? a. a guide for training psychology students in assessment techniques b. a textbook about the etiology of psychological disorders c. a classification system for abnormal behaviour d. an encyclopedia of treatment approaches for psychological disorders ANSWER: c 5. What organization publishes the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders? a. the International Medical Association b. the American Psychological Association c. the American Psychiatric Association d. the National Institute of Mental Health ANSWER: c 6. For what purpose does the process of clinical assessment result in narrowing the focus? a. to consider a broad range of problems b. to focus on “inter” and “intra” personal problems equally c. to concentrate on problem areas that seem most relevant d. to uncover all possible causes of stress in the person’s life ANSWER: c 7. A patient who had recurrent headaches, fatigue, and loss of appetite received different diagnoses from several psychiatrists. In terms of assessment, what type of problem does this example illustrate? a. a problem with classification b. a problem with reliability c. a problem with validity d. a problem with standardization ANSWER: b 8. Dr. Evans conducts a study that showed his colleague’s “depression screener” doesn’t predict depressive symptoms. What is the problem with the depression screener? a. validity b. standardization c. reliability d. classification ANSWER: a 9. If an assessment measures what it is intended to measure it is said to be considered to be which of the following? a. valid b. reliable c. standardized d. clinical ANSWER: a 10. An IQ test indicates a level of intelligence that closely corresponds with a student’s high school grades and with teachers’ ratings of the student’s intelligence. In this instance, what does this IQ test have? a. concurrent validity b. content validity c. predictive validity d. construct validity ANSWER: a 11. When Ms. Rath was seeking employment, a job consultant gave her a standard IQ test. The following year, the same consultant gave Ms. Rath the same IQ test. Ms. Rath’s score was similar on both occasions. What does this indicate? a. The test has concurrent validity. b. The test has long-term validity. c. The test has inter-rater reliability. d. The test has test-retest reliability. ANSWER: d 12. Mr. Lopez, a 40-year-old recent immigrant to Canada, is learning to speak English. He applies for a job and is given a test. His score is compared to other test takers who are mostly college graduates whose native language is English. Mr. Lopez thinks this is unfair. What kind of problem does this situation illustrate? a. a problem with classification b. a problem with standardization c. a problem with validity d. a problem with reliability ANSWER: b 13. As part of a psychological assessment, a mental status exam is used to find out how a person thinks, feels, and behaves. However, what is the primary purpose of a mental status exam? a. to determine what type of treatment should be used b. to determine if a psychological disorder might be present c. to determine whether the individual also has a medical condition d. to determine which medication would be most effective ANSWER: b 14. How is a mental status exam related to a clinical interview? a. A mental status exam score is important information for hospitalizations. b. A mental status exam is used to elicit spontaneous information that is not usually obtained in the interview. c. A mental status exam is administered immediately following the interview. d. A mental status exam is used to organize the information obtained during the interview. ANSWER: d 15. In a mental status exam, a clinician can make a rough estimate of the patient’s intellectual functioning. What does the clinician attempt to detect by listening to the patient’s speech? a. the ability to talk about his or her problems logically and objectively b. insight into his or her problems c. the tendency to use abstractions and metaphors d. the ability to speak slowly and clearly ANSWER: c 16. Which of the following is NOT a category covered in a mental status exam? a. physical symptoms b. behaviour c. appearance d. intellectual functioning ANSWER: a 17. With regard to a mental status exam, which of the following questions is NOT related to the concept of sensorium? a. Who are you? b. Where are you? c. How old are you? d. What is today’s date? ANSWER: c 18. Which of the following is a part of the intellectual functioning component of a mental status exam? a. noting a person’s vocabulary b. noting the appropriateness of a person’s attire c. noting a person’s mood d. noting the content of what a person is saying ANSWER: a 19. The term “sensorium” refers to part of the mental status exam. What does sensorium mean? a. a person’s impairment in visual or auditory functioning b. a person’s general awareness of his or her surroundings c. a person’s level of emotional sensitivity d. a person’s ability to make reasonable judgments ANSWER: b 20. Determining mood and affect is an important part of the mental status exam. Although both of these terms refer to feeling states of the individual, how does mood differ from affect? a. Mood is more changeable than affect. b. Mood is more frequent than affect. c. Mood is more pervasive than affect. d. Mood is more severe than affect. ANSWER: c 21. Dr. Ashton has assessed Mr. Tindale and sees that while Mr. Tindale knows his name and the date, he doesn’t know where he is. Dr. Ashton writes something in Mr. Tindale’s chart that the nurses are having trouble reading. What do you think Dr. Ashton wrote? a. “patient oriented times one” b. “patient oriented times two” c. “patient oriented times three” d. “patient sensorium clear” ANSWER: b 22. Dr. Harrison is conducting an mental status exam on Bradley. When he asks Bradley to talk about the death of his sister, Bradley begins to laugh uncontrollably. Based on this laughter, Dr. Harrison notes that Bradley is exhibiting inappropriate: a. mood b. affect c. sensorium d. behaviour ANSWER: b 23. Asking specific questions—such as “Who are you?” “Where are you?” and “What’s the weather like today?”—is an important part of a mental status exam. What component of the exam are such questions addressing? a. the intellectual functioning component b. the mood and affect component c. the thought process component d. the sensorium component ANSWER: d 24. In a clinical interview, when does the law regarding privileged communication apply? a. if the patient has mentioned thoughts of suicide b. if the patient threatens to harm someone else c. if the patient relates a history of sexual abuse d. if the patient threatens to harm themselves ANSWER: c 25. How do semistructured interviews differ from unstructured interviews? a. In the semistructured format, clinicians develop their own methods of collecting necessary information; in the unstructured interview the clinician does not develop their own method of collecting unnecessary information. b. In the semistructured format, clinicians try to keep the client from straying from specific issues identified by the therapist as essential; in the unstructured interview these rules are not in place. c. In the semistructured format, clinicians rely on the organizational structure of a mental status exam; in the unstructured interview they do not use mental status exams. d. In the semistructured format, clinicians use questions that have been tested to elicit useful information in a consistent manner; in the unstructured interview they do not. ANSWER: d 26. A clinician follows a general outline of questions designed to gather essential information but is free to ask the questions in any particular order and to branch off into other directions in order to follow up on clinically important information. What type of interview is being used in this example? a. an unstructured interview b. a structured interview c. a behavioural interview d. a semistructured interview ANSWER: d 27. What is the primary purpose of structured and semi-structured interviews? a. The standardized collection of necessary information allows for comparison with similar individuals. b. They initiate treatment. c. They increase confidentiality. d. Engagement strategies are built in to help develop the therapist–client relationship. ANSWER: a 28. Which of the following medical conditions might also produce symptoms of behavioural disorders or symptoms that mimic psychological disorders? a. hyperthyroidism b. cocaine withdrawal c. heart attack d. fibromyalgia ANSWER: a 29. Dr. Hall, a clinical psychologist, decides to conduct a behavioural assessment of five-year-old Sarah, instead of a clinical interview, after her parents report that she has had repeated and often physical conflicts with other children on the playground. Why is a behavioural assessment preferable in this case? a. because the parents could be exaggerating the problem b. because a structured interview might be too stressful for a young child c. because young children are less able to verbally communicate their problems and experiences d. because young children often deliberately withhold information from authority figures ANSWER: c 30. What are the ABCs of behavioural observation? a. antecedent, behaviour, consequences b. affect, behaviour, consequences c. antecedent, behaviour, causes d. affect, behaviour, cognition ANSWER: a 31. A mother who is concerned about behavioural problems tells the clinician that her child has “an attitude.” Before diagnosing and treating the child, the psychologist would want to clarify what the mother means by “attitude.” What type of definition is the psychologist seeking? a. a behavioural definition b. an observational definition c. an operational definition d. a structured definition ANSWER: c 32. A clinician asks a child to sit at a desk in a simulated classroom situation to complete a difficult task. The clinician is using this technique to discover the reasons the child has been engaging in self-hitting (self-injurious) behaviour. In behavioural assessment terms, what type of behaviour has the self-hitting been identified as? a. measurable behaviour b. target behaviour c. resultant behaviour d. observable behaviour ANSWER: b 33. Compared to informal observation, what is an advantage of formal observation? a. Formal observations provide more perspective because they are written after an open-ended, out-of-office interview in a non-clinical setting. b. Formal observations rarely require the use of naturalistic settings. c. Formal observations are more reliable due to the focus on behaviours that are both observable and measurable. d. Formal observations give more information about an individual because they require a three-hour minimum time commitment. ANSWER: c 34. If a clinician deviates from a structured interview, what type of assessment is he or she using? a. a semistructured interview assessment b. naturalistic observations c. a conversational inventory assessment d. an individual-engagement therapeutic assessment ANSWER: a 35. What has the “reactivity phenomenon” of self-monitoring procedures been shown to do? a. increase desired behaviours b. decrease undesired behaviours c. increase emotional responses to external stressors d. both increase desired behaviours and decrease undesired behaviours ANSWER: d 36. With respect to monitoring procedures, which of the following is an example of the reactivity phenomenon? a. On parents’ visiting day in a classroom, the previously well-behaved children continue to show good behaviour. b. A man quits smoking after his father dies of lung cancer. c. After joining a fitness club, a woman stops exercising in her home and instead walks two kilometres a day by herself. d. A man begins to eat less after joining a clinic weight-loss program in which each participant’s weight is recorded weekly by a staff member. ANSWER: d 37. Many popular magazines include “psychological” or “personality” tests to help readers better understand themselves or others. How does your textbook view most of these tests? a. They are reliable. b. They are for entertainment only. c. They are informative and educational. d. They are valid. ANSWER: b 38. Dr. Gallagher has decided to use a projective test on a client in order to explore the client’s unconscious. Why has Dr. Gallagher chosen a projective test in this case? a. It is important to use tests that are structured, objective, and valid. b. Many people are too embarrassed to reveal highly personal information openly. c. By definition, unconscious processes can be measured only indirectly. d. Clinical interviews are always insufficient to reveal a person’s problems. ANSWER: c 39. When an individual describes what he or she sees in the ambiguous stimuli of the Rorschach test, what is assumed to be revealed? a. the person’s preconscious thoughts b. the person’s unconscious thoughts c. the person’s conscious thoughts d. the person’s subconscious thoughts ANSWER: b 40. Dr. Gupta is a psychoanalytic therapist who wants to assess the unconscious thoughts and feelings of a patient. What type of test would Dr. Gupta most likely use? a. the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test b. the Rhythm Test c. the MMPI d. the Thematic Apperception Test ANSWER: d 41. Why was the Comprehensive System for administering and scoring the Rorschach inkblot test developed? a. because it was discovered that inter-rater reliability had increased significantly b. because the previous scoring system was found to be difficult and time consuming c. because Hermann Rorschach was dissatisfied with the way his test was being administered d. because there was a lack of standardized procedures, which can affect the way the test-taker responds to the questions ANSWER: d 42. The Thematic Apperception Test differs from the Rorschach inkblot test in that the person taking the TAT is asked to use his or her imagination to do which of the following? a. tell a complete story about a picture b. tell how a descriptive sentence applies to him- or herself c. identify the theme that is common to a set of pictures d. speculate about the relationships between various people shown in a picture ANSWER: a 43. Dr. Klassen is a therapist who has chosen to employ the Thematic Apperception Test with one of his clients. What is the most likely reason for his decision? a. He wants to encourage his client to talk more openly about their life during counseling sessions. b. He wants to develop a comprehensive, empirically sound clinical intervention for his client. c. He wants to allow his client to perform and score a private self-assessment. d. He wants to use the test to diagnose the client. ANSWER: a 44. Which of the following is a projective test? a. the WAIS b. the MMPI c. the TAT d. the MCMI ANSWER: c 45. What is one problem with projective tests? a. They are often too rigid. b. They make participants feel uncomfortable. c. They are expensive to administer. d. They are not standardized across clinicians. ANSWER: d 46. In contrast to projective tests, personality inventories such as the MMPI are based on the collection and evaluation of data. What type of approach is this? a. an analytic approach b. a predictive approach c. an empirical approach d. a descriptive approach ANSWER: c 47. In contrast to projective tests, which rely heavily on theory for an interpretation, what are the MMPI and similar inventories based on? a. skills a person needs to function in day-to-day life b. clinical experience and intuition c. the collection and evaluation of data d. the person’s psychiatric and social history ANSWER: c 48. Dr. DuPont is researching an assessment instrument. Which of the following is she most likely conducting research on? a. the MMPI b. the TAT c. the Rorschach inkblot test d. the PCL-R ANSWER: a 49. Why does the assessment concept known as reliability increase in the MMPI? a. because the MMPI is often interpreted by computer b. because the MMPI is non-sexist c. because the MMPI is well researched d. because the MMPI is made up of many scales ANSWER: a 50. What is used to assess results on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)? a. the correspondence between the individual’s pattern of answers and that of people diagnosed with a specific disorder b. the frequency at which the individual refers to specific ideas, such as aggression or sexuality c. the degree of emotionality associated with results d. the frequency with which the individual responds to questions that reflect aggression or some other concept ANSWER: a 51. On which scale of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) would you expect a remorseless, aggressive, and irresponsible person to get a high score? a. paranoia scale b. psychopathic deviation scale c. psychasthenia scale d. social deviation scale ANSWER: b 52. Suppose an individual taking the MMPI makes false claims about psychological problems. On which scale will he or she most likely obtain an elevated score? a. Defensiveness (K) b. Infrequency (F) c. Inconsistency (I) d. Lie (L) ANSWER: b 53. Suppose an individual taking the MMPI falsifies answers in order to look good. On which scale will he or she most likely have a high score? a. Defensiveness (K) b. Infrequency (F) c. Inconsistency (I) d. Lie (L) ANSWER: d 54. While taking the MMPI, James made an attempt to give himself an unrealistic positive image by falsifying answers and trying to appear as though he had no psychological problems. On which scale(s) would James most likely receive a high score? a. L (Lie), K (Defensiveness, and F (Infrequency) scales only b. F (Infrequency) scale only c. K (Defensiveness) scale only d. L (Lie) and K (Defensiveness) scales only ANSWER: d 55. On which MMPI scale would a pattern of responses indicating negative expectations about the motives of others and generalized distrust produce a high score? a. Fears (FRS) b. Psychopathic Deviation (Pd) c. Bizarre Mentation (BIZ) d. Cynicism (CYN) ANSWER: d 56. Which of the following was a cause of problems with the original version of the MMPI? a. the lack of standardized instructions for administration b. clinicians’ subjective interpretations of scale scores c. selective sampling for the standardization group and the biased wording of questions d. low reliability and validity ANSWER: c 57. Individuals who are conning and manipulative pathological liars would be unlikely to respond truthfully on a self-report measure of personality. Hare’s PCL-R is an instrument that measures the characteristics of psychopathy. What does Hare’s PCL-R use? a. behavioural observation in the person’s natural environment b. interviews with the client along with material from institutional files and people close to the person c. projective tests to tap into unconscious processes d. lie detector equipment along with a verbal form of the personality test ANSWER: b 58. The calculation of an IQ, previously done by using a child’s mental age, is now done by using a deviation IQ. What is the child’s score now compared to? a. the scores of others who took the test at the same time b. the scores of others in the same grade c. the scores of others with the same level of intelligence d. the scores of others of the same age ANSWER: d 59. What does the continuing controversy about the WAIS concern? a. whether the WAIS tests have “portability” to people from other countries and cultures b. whether the WAIS tests measure emotional intelligence c. whether the WAIS tests measure distinct cognitive skills d. whether the WAIS tests should be used with adults as well as children ANSWER: a 60. What kind of test is the Stanford-Binet test? a. a personality test b. a projective test c. an intelligence test d. a mental status test ANSWER: c 61. What have researchers found regarding the Weschler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC) I and II? a. There are significant gender differences on this test that are not observed on other IQ tests. b. Scores on this test do not predict academic success well at all. c. The WISC is fully “portable” across cultural boundaries. d. A variety of factors can influence scores, including culture. ANSWER: d 62. Which technique would be appropriate if you wished to look for the location of possible damage in a client’s brain? a. MMPI b. PET scan c. WAIS-III d. a projective test ANSWER: c 63. What is a limitation of IQ tests? a. They do not assess a person’s ability to adapt to the environment or generate new ideas. b. They do not provide predictive validity with respect to academic success. c. They do not measure abilities such as attention and memory. d. They do not measure abilities such as reasoning and perception. ANSWER: a 64. What are neuropsychological tests used to assess? a. whether an individual might have had a psychotic episode b. whether an individual might have a brain dysfunction c. whether an individual might be intellectually disabled d. whether an individual might be in a depressed state ANSWER: b 65. If it were important to determine the exact location of brain impairment, which of the following would most likely be used? a. the Gall Phrenological Brain Scan b. the Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Battery c. the Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale d. the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test ANSWER: b 66. One of the problems in using neuropsychological tests to detect organic damage and cognitive disorders involves the possibility of false negatives. Which of the following is most likely to result from a false negative? a. A patients undergoes completely unnecessary and expensive procedures. b. A clinician misses an important medical problem that needs to be treated. c. A patient is diagnosed with a condition that does not exist. d. Cell damage occurs due to repeated radiation exposure. ANSWER: b 67. Why are neuropsychological tests used? a. to map blood flow and other metabolic activity in the brain b. to help differentiate those who have a given cognitive disorder from those people who do not c. to predict who will develop a specific cognitive disorder five or ten years later d. to take accurate pictures of brain structure and function ANSWER: b 68. Sarah’s family doctor has suggested to her parents that they see a specialist to have a neuropsychological test completed. What is this type of test intended to do? a. use imaging to assess brain structure and/or function b. determine the possible contribution of brain damage to the person’s condition c. ascertain the structure and patterns of cognition d. assess long-standing patterns of behaviour ANSWER: b 69. Marguerite is tested for brain damage. Although her test results indicate that she has no brain damage, in reality she has a brain tumour. Her test results indicate a false negative. Which of the following is the MOST likely outcome? a. Marguerite will become discouraged and put off following up on medical care. b. Marguerite may end up paying for costly treatment that is not necessary. c. Marguerite will not get the treatment she needs. d. Marguerite may seek out an additional medical opinion. ANSWER: c 70. Which of the following is a problem associated with a false positive result on a psychological test? a. Damage that requires treatment is more likely to be overlooked. b. Neurological damage may have been missed. c. It may call for unnecessary and expensive further testing. d. A person who should be concerned may have a false sense of well-being. ANSWER: a 71. How does the CAT scan neuroimaging technique work? a. It uses X-rays to portray brain structures. b. It uses magnetic fields to portray brain structures. c. It follows tracer elements in the nervous system. d. It uses magnetic fields to portray brain functions. ANSWER: a 72. What is the main difference between neuropsychological tests and neuroimaging techniques? a. Neuropsychological tests help identify the location of the brain dysfunction, whereas neuroimaging shows us the structure and functioning of the brain. b. Neuropsychological tests help identify the structure and functioning of the brain, whereas neuroimaging shows us the location of the brain dysfunction. c. Neuropsychological tests help identify the nature of the brain dysfunction, whereas neuroimaging shows us the reasons for the brain dysfunction. d. Neuropsychological tests help identify patterns of dysfunctional cognitions, whereas neuroimaging shows us the structure of dysfunctional cognitions. ANSWER: a 73. What have recent research studies used PET scans for? a. to look at varying patterns of brain metabolism that might be associated with different disorders b. to locate brain tumours and injuries c. to detect tissue variations associated with different disorders d. to locate abnormalities in the structure or shape of the brain ANSWER: a 74. Which neuroimaging device would be used to examine dopamine activity in individuals with bipolar disorder? a. CAT b. MRI c. PET d. TAT ANSWER: c 75. Which of the following refers to an imaging technique that uses a radioactive tracer to measure the functioning of various parts of the brain? a. a PET scan b. a CT scan c. a CAT scan d. an MRI scan ANSWER: a 76. Which of the following is single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) most similar to in technique and purpose? a. EEG b. MRI c. CAT d. PET ANSWER: d 77. How does the fMRI procedure differ from the traditional MRI? a. The fMRI procedure uses X-rays to show the brain from different angles. b. The fMRI procedure measures brain metabolism. c. The fMRI procedure measures brain wave activity. d. The fMRI procedure can take pictures of the brain at work, recording changes from one second to the next. ANSWER: d 78. In studies using fMRI, how did post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) participants who report primarily dissociative (numbing-type) responses to listening to scripts about their traumas compare to PTSD participants who experienced primarily hyperarousal patterns to trauma scripts? a. They had more atrophied parts of the brain. b. They had less electrical activity in the limbic system. c. They had slower and more irregular delta waves. d. They had very different patterns of brain activation. ANSWER: d 79. What is the primary basis for a prognosis? a. information about the course of the disorder in other individuals b. clinical experience c. the treatment options available to the patient d. the client’s desire to reform ANSWER: a 80. Which of the following is used to measure electrical activity in the brain? a. an electroencephalograph b. an electrocardiograph c. an electromyogram d. an electroencephalogram ANSWER: d 81. James wants to examine brain wave patterns associated with psychological disorders, such as schizophrenia, and with physiological problems related to tumours and brain damage. What should James use? a. a CAT scan b. an EEG c. a PET scan d. an MRI ANSWER: d 82. When thinking about nosology, classical is to dimensional as: a. symptoms is to prototypes b. prototypes is to profiles c. presence is to severity d. individuals is to symptoms ANSWER: c 83. What do the terms “taxonomy” and “nosology” refer to? a. the classification of entities or disorders in a scientific context b. the process of identifying specific psychological disorders c. the process of testing the validity and reliability of a classification system d. the measurement of changes in the nervous system ANSWER: a 84. Why is assessing psychophysiological responding very important in the assessment of many sexual dysfunctions and disorders? a. because misdiagnosis of sexual disorders can be devastating for the patient b. because it avoids having to ask patients direct and possibly embarrassing questions about their sexuality c. because many people are unaware that they have a true sexual disorder d. because sometimes the individual is unaware of his or her specific patterns of sexual arousal ANSWER: d 85. What does the classical categorical approach to diagnosis assume about each person with a particular disorder? a. He or she will experience very few of the same symptoms. b. He or she will respond to the same treatments equally. c. He or she will be helped by recognizing the cause of the disorder. d. He or she will experience the same symptoms with little or no variation. ANSWER: d 86. What does the dimensional approach to classification of mental disorders provide that the categorical approach does not? a. The dimensional system provides scales that indicate the degree to which patients are experiencing various cognitions, moods, and behaviours. b. The dimensional system provides diagnostic labels based on the presence of specific symptoms. c. The dimensional system provides lists of symptoms that are associated with all of the forms of psychopathology that are currently believed to exist. d. The dimensional system provides information that is used to determine the cause and treatment of the disorder. ANSWER: a 87. Which approach allows some variation in symptoms without changing classification? a. a categorical approach b. a dimensional approach c. a multidimensional approach d. a prototypical approach ANSWER: d 88. If two people are both diagnosed with the same disorder using the DSM 5, how will the two people be similar? a. They will have experienced identical symptoms of the disorder. b. They will have experienced similar distress as a result of the disorder. c. They will have lost the ability to function in a similar way. d. They will have some of the same symptoms as each other. ANSWER: d 89. Accurate diagnoses are partly dependent on the reliability and validity of the diagnostic system being used (e.g., the DSM 5). What else does diagnostic accuracy depend on? a. the patient’s ability to describe his or her symptoms clearly and honestly b. the skills and training of the clinician c. valid statistics regarding the prevalence of the disorder d. the efficacy of treatments available for a given psychological disorder ANSWER: b 90. Using a new diagnostic system, several clinicians interview a patient and independently provide the same diagnosis. The diagnosis may be different from the diagnosis that would be applied using an older diagnostic system. What can we assume about the new diagnostic system? a. It appears to be standardized. b. It appears to be reliable. c. It appears to be normed. d. It appears to be valid. ANSWER: b 91. Suppose a clinician creates criteria for a diagnosis that reflects what most experts in the field consider to be a particular prototypical patient. What is the clinician doing? a. creating content validity b. creating predictive validity c. creating criteria validity d. creating consensus validity ANSWER: a 92. If an assessment is shown to measure what it is intended to measure, it can be said to be which of the following? a. reliable b. sensitive c. standardized d. valid ANSWER: d 93. What is considered the most significant difference between the DSM-IV-R to the DSM-5? a. The axis system has been eliminated. b. Several disorders, such as Asperger’s syndrome, have been eliminated. c. Several disorders, such as gambling addiction, have been added. d. The DSM 5 stipulates a treatment plan and not just a diagnosis. ANSWER: a 94. What type of disorder is the condition in the Inuit culture known as “kayak-angst”? a. manic disorder b. psychotic disorder c. depressive disorder d. anxiety disorder ANSWER: d 95. Your 70-year-old father is recounting a childhood story when he describes affectionately the boy down the street as an imbecile. You respond to your father by saying, in classifying mental disorders, we don’t use labels such as “moron,” “imbecile,” or “idiot” anymore. When he asks you why, how do you respond? a. People will refuse treatment for mental disorders that have a negative connotation. b. There were no effective treatments for these disorders in the past. c. Mental health professionals are reluctant to assign a diagnosis that upsets people. d. Labels can take on a negative meaning. ANSWER: d 96. Why might a mixed anxiety-depression diagnosis be considered for DSM inclusion? a. because the disorder is theoretically sound b. because the symptoms are often seen in primary-care settings c. because the disorder is scientifically based d. because the disorder has construct validity ANSWER: b 97. What important change was made in the DSM versions that followed DSM-III? a. a change from a dimensional to a categorical system b. the inclusion of the humanistic view of pathology c. greater emphasis on validity and less concern for reliability d. the lack of a presumed theoretical cause for each disorder ANSWER: d 98. You are attending a mental health lecture at your school when a heated debate erupts over the inclusion of premenstrual dysphoric disorder in the DSM. Why does this controversy exist? a. because of issues related to religion b. because of issues related to pregnancy and birth c. because of issues related to stigmatization d. because of issues related to racism ANSWER: c 99. Which of the following is a difficulty with diagnosing premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)? a. DiGuilio and Reissing (2006) found little evidence that PMDD is a distinct diagnostic entity. b. Symptoms occur only during the late luteal phase and thus it does not qualify as a genuine endocrine disorder. c. It is difficult to distinguish PMDD from premenstrual exacerbations of other disorders, such as binge eating disorder or mood disorders. d. It has less severe symptomatology than premenstrual syndrome and thus does not warrant a DSM-IV diagnostic label. ANSWER: c 100. The DSM 5 is similar to the DSM –IV- R in which of the following ways? a. It groups disorders by what causes them. b. It specifies treatment for disorders. c. The categories of disorders are very similar. d. It uses a multiaxial approach to diagnosis. ANSWER: c 101. Describe the major objectives and procedures of clinical assessment. Be sure to include the typical activities of the assessor and the intended outcomes of the process. ANSWER: Student responses will vary. 102. Describe the concepts of reliability and validity. Why are the reliability and the validity of an assessment procedure important? ANSWER: Student responses will vary. 103. Describe the major objectives and typical procedures of the mental status exam. Be sure to include the typical activities of the examiner and the intended outcomes of the process. ANSWER: Student responses will vary. 104. Discuss the concept of confidentiality and the limits of confidentiality with regard to clinical assessment. Be sure to include the situations that would cause a clinician to break confidentiality. ANSWER: Student responses will vary. 105. Discuss fully how behavioural assessment takes the clinical interview one step further. What kinds of clinical populations and clinical problems might be especially well suited for behavioural assessment? Explain how target behaviours are identified and observed, using an illustrative example. ANSWER: Student responses will vary. 106. Identify and describe the ABCs of observational assessment. Using illustrative examples, explain how informal observation differs from formal observation, and the strengths and weaknesses of each. ANSWER: Student responses will vary. 107. Projective tests such as the Thematic Apperception Test and the original Rorschach inkblot test are often criticized with regard to their reliability. Explain why the reliability of these tests may not be as good as a personality measure such as the MMPI. ANSWER: Student responses will vary. 108. A psychiatrist orders a series of tests including an IQ test, personality inventory (MMPI), neuropsychological test (Halstead-Reitan), and a brain scan (CT scan) for a ten-year-old boy who has recently been acting aggressively. Explain what each test measures and how the psychiatrist would use the results of each test to help diagnose or rule out potential causes of the boy’s behaviour. ANSWER: Student responses will vary. 109. Explain the difference between neuropsychological testing and neuroimaging. Describe the procedures involved in computerized axial tomography (CAT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and functional MRI (fMRI), and explain what each procedure allows us to examine. ANSWER: Student responses will vary. 110. Describe the influence of culture on the experience of psychopathology. Why is it important for the clinician to acknowledge and appreciate the patient’s culture before determining a diagnosis? ANSWER: Student responses will vary. 111. Labelling a patient with a diagnosis is often referred to as a “double-edged sword,” as the diagnostic label can both help and hurt the patient. Explain the advantages and disadvantages (to the patient) of a diagnostic label. ANSWER: Student responses will vary.