Human Physiology 15Th Edition By Fox - Test Bank

Human Physiology, 15e (Fox) Chapter 1 The Study of Body Function 1) Physiology ________. A) emphasizes cause-and-effect mechanisms B) includes the fields of chemistry and psychology C) ignores the scientific method D) ultimately strives to understand the structures of individual cells 2) The study of how disease or injury alters physiological processes is termed ________. A) comparative physiology B) the scientific method C) pathophysiology D) anatomy 3) The study of disease processes aids in the understanding of normal functions. 4) The first step in the scientific method involves the formation of a(n) ________. A) theory B) law C) experiment D) hypothesis 5) Phase IV clinical drug trials involve testing a drug only on the specific human population who have the condition that the drug is intended to treat. 6) Phase ________ clinical trials maximize the number of test participants and include human participants of both sexes, different ethnic groups, and those who have health problems besides the one that the drug is designed to treat. A) I B) II C) III D) IV 7) Phase I clinical trials do NOT involve ________. A) testing on the target human population B) testing how the drug is metabolized C) testing how rapidly the drug is removed from the body D) testing the most effective administration of the drug 8) When a scientist performs measurements in an experiment and does not know if the subject is part of the experimental or the control group, it is known as a ________ measurement. A) blind B) qualitative C) null D) statistical 9) A hypothesis is scientific if it ________. A) supports other hypotheses B) can be tested C) refutes other hypotheses D) uses observational analyses 10) For a theory to be scientific and accepted, it must be based on ________. A) reproducible data B) the support of the scientific community C) a proven hypothesis from a well-designed research study D) the word of a professional scientist 11) Negative feedback results in a response that opposes the original deviation from normal. 12) Blood clotting is an example of positive feedback since the action of the effector opposes that of the stimulus. 13) A patient takes a daily thyroid hormone replacement medication to maintain normal thyroid hormone levels. 14) The normal range of blood glucose concentration after fasting is approximately ________. A) 50 to 80 mg/100 ml B) 50 to 110 mg/100 ml C) 75 to 110 mg/100 ml D) 75 to 150 mg/100 ml 15) The normal range of arterial blood pH is ________. A) 6.50–7.50 B) 7.35–7.45 C) 6.95–7.05 D) 7.15–7.25 16) In a feedback loop, the integrating center sends information to the ________. A) sensor B) effector C) brain region D) thermostat 17) Both ________ and ________ are the regulators of effectors in most feedback loops. A) enzymes, nerve impulses B) hormones, paracrines C) neurotransmitters, enzymes D) hormones, nerve impulses E) enzymes, hormones 18) Homeostatic regulatory mechanisms known as ________ are "built-in" to the organs being regulated. A) intrinsic B) extrinsic C) exothermic D) passive 19) The endocrine and nervous systems are considered ________ homeostatic regulatory mechanisms. A) intrinsic B) active C) extrinsic D) passive 20) When blood glucose levels rise, the pancreatic islets are stimulated to release insulin, which acts on target cells to uptake glucose from the blood. Thus, the islets serve as the ________ in the feedback loop. A) effectors B) integrating center C) sensors D) All of the choices are correct. 21) A decrease in mean arterial pressure is detected by ________. A) an effector B) an integrating center C) a sensor D) a chemical messenger 22) When a vessel is damaged, chemicals are released from the vessel walls that attract platelets to the site of the damage. As they accumulate, more chemicals that attract more platelets to the area until the bleeding stops. This represents ________ feedback, with the platelets acting as the ________. A) negative; sensors B) positive; integrating center C) negative; integrating center D) positive; effectors 23) Dynamic constancy is a term used to describe homeostasis. Which of the following is NOT an example of dynamic constancy? A) Sweating or shivering as you move from inside air-conditioned stores to outside on a hot, humid day B) Administering IV fluids to a person who presents to the emergency room with dehydration C) The pancreas releasing insulin when blood glucose levels are significantly elevated D) Adjusting the depth and rate of breathing if blood pH levels change 24) Estrogen levels cause both increased and decreased hormone secretions from the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus at various points in the menstrual cycle. This indicates that ________. A) estrogen is secreted in consistent amounts from the ovaries throughout the menstrual cycle B) estrogen is not involved in any feedback loops C) estrogen is involved in both positive and negative feedback with the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus D) the ovaries serve as the integrating center in a feedback loop with the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus 25) The control of hormone secretion by its own effects is called ________. A) positive feedback B) negative feedback C) negative feedback inhibition D) antagonist effector 26) The primary stimulus for insulin secretion is ________. A) increased blood glucose concentrations B) increased blood calcium concentrations C) increased body temperature D) increased exposure to sunlight 27) If blood glucose levels decrease from normal, which of the following changes takes place to bring glucose levels back to normal? A) Increase in insulin; increase in glucagon B) Increase in insulin; decrease in glucagon C) Decrease in insulin; increase in glucagon D) Decrease in insulin; decrease in glucagon 28) Which of the following is NOT a primary tissue of the body? A) Nervous B) Epithelial C) Muscular D) Osseous 29) Contraction of ________ muscle can be consciously controlled. A) cardiac B) smooth C) skeletal D) striated 30) Intercalated discs couple ________ cells both mechanically and electrically. A) smooth muscle B) myocardial C) skeletal muscle D) both myocardial and skeletal muscle 31) You examine a sample of muscle tissue under the microscope, and it has a striped, or striated appearance. This sample could not have been taken from the ________. A) muscle of the thigh B) wall of digestive tract C) wall of heart chamber D) muscle of the forearm 32) Which of the following is a characteristic of smooth muscle? A) Fibers are striated in appearance B) Attached to the skeleton by tendons C) Intercalated discs connect adjacent cells D) Found in the walls of the digestive tract 33) Neuroglia are supporting cells present in the ________. A) brain B) spinal cord C) effector organs D) Both brain and spinal cord are correct. 34) Damage to the ________ of a neuron would interfere with its ability to receive sensory input from its surrounding environment. A) dendrites B) axons C) cell body D) telodendria 35) Which of the following is NOT a function of neuroglia? A) Bind neurons together B) Help nourish neurons C) Conduct impulses to effectors D) Modify the extracellular environment of neurons 36) Stratified epithelial tissue provides little protection, but transports substances between the internal and external environments. 37) The peritoneal membrane of the abdominal cavity secretes fluid to reduce friction between adjacent organs in the body. The tissue best suited to this description and function is ________. A) stratified squamous B) elastic connective tissue C) simple columnar D) simple squamous 38) Cells that are as wide as they are tall have a ________ shape. A) squamous B) cuboidal C) columnar D) rectangular 39) The ________ is a protein and polysaccharide layer that attaches epithelial tissue to the underlying connective tissue. A) goblet cell B) epidermis C) basement membrane D) plasma membrane 40) Which types of connections allow epithelial cells to form strong membranes? A) Basement membranes B) Intercalated discs C) Junctional complexes D) Keratinized 41) Keratinized epithelium ________. A) has living cells in all layers B) is a moist membrane C) allows water to diffuse through D) is a dry, mostly dead membrane 42) Epithelial tissues that are more than one layer thick are called ________. A) simple B) stratified C) squamous D) ciliated 43) Histological examination of a tissue shows several layers of keratinized flattened cells. This sample most likely came from ________. A) the epidermis of the skin B) the lining of the oral cavity C) the lining of the urinary bladder D) the lining of the digestive tract 44) Which type of epithelial tissue would be found lining the uterine tubes? A) Simple ciliated columnar epithelium B) Stratified cuboidal epithelium C) Nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium D) Simple cuboidal epithelium 45) Specialized unicellular glands found in columnar and pseudostratified columnar epithelium that secrete mucus are called ________. A) cilia B) keratin C) transitional cells D) goblet cells 46) A single layer of irregularly shaped epithelial cells found lining the respiratory tract is called ________. A) simple columnar epithelium B) stratified cuboidal epithelium C) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium D) transitional epithelium 47) The epithelial tissue that lines the urinary bladder and allows distention is called ________. A) transitional epithelium B) stratified cuboidal epithelium C) simple columnar epithelium D) nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium 48) The entire epidermis is replaced every ________. A) 2–3 days B) 2 weeks C) 2–3 hours D) 2 months 49) Which of the following is a function of simple squamous epithelium? A) Protection B) Diffusion C) Distention D) Transport through ciliary action 50) Sebaceous glands are responsible for the lubrication of the skin. 51) Which of the following is NOT an example of an exocrine gland? A) Mucous gland that secretes onto respiratory passages B) Sweat gland that secretes onto the skin C) Salivary gland that secretes into the mouth D) Testes cells that secrete testosterone into the blood 52) Which glands are primarily responsible for thermoregulation? A) Apocrine sweat glands B) Endocrine glands C) Eccrine sweat glands D) Sebaceous glands 53) Enamel, which is harder than bone or dentin, cannot be regenerated. 54) Which tissue attaches skeletal muscles to bones? A) Ligaments B) Cartilages C) Tendons D) Adipocytes 55) Which of the following is the main characteristic of connective tissue? A) Large amount of closely packed cells B) Large amount of extracellular material C) The ability to conduct a current D) Small amount of extracellular material 56) Tendons are composed of ________. A) adipose tissue B) dense regular fibrous connective tissue C) dense irregular fibrous connective tissue D) loose connective tissue 57) What protein is present in large amounts in connective tissue proper? A) Collagen B) Keratin C) Enamel D) Mucin 58) Which type of connective tissue is characterized by a liquid extracellular matrix? A) Bone B) Blood C) Adipose D) Irregular dense connective tissue 59) The cells that secrete fibers and matrix that create bone tissue are known as ________. A) osteocytes B) osteoblasts C) osteons D) chondrocytes 60) Cartilage cells are known as ________. A) osteocytes B) osteoblasts C) chondroblasts D) chondrocytes 61) Units of bone composed of concentric rings of lamellae with trapped osteocytes are called ________. A) canaliculi B) osteons C) haversian systems D) Both osteons and haversian systems are correct. 62) By affecting the diameter of cutaneous blood vessels, motor nerve fibers in the skin can regulate the rate of blood flow. 63) Which of the following is NOT a function of the epidermis? A) Acts as barrier against microorganisms B) Prevents water loss C) Protects against abrasion D) Provides strength and elasticity 64) How does the skin protect a person from the ultraviolet rays of the sun? A) Produces sweat B) Produces vitamin D C) Produces sebum D) Produces melanin 65) What produces "goose bumps"? A) Secretion of sweat B) Contraction of the arrector pili muscle C) Flow of sebum onto the skin D) Dilation of cutaneous blood vessels 66) The ________ layer of the skin contains sweat glands, hair follicles, and sebaceous glands. A) epidermal B) dermal C) hypodermal D) subdermal 67) The hypodermis is primarily composed of ________. A) adipose tissue B) nervous tissue C) blood vessels D) hair cells 68) The zygote (fertilized egg) has the ability to produce all the various types of cells found in the body. Therefore, it is a(n) ________ cell. A) pluripotent B) multipotent C) totipotent D) omnipotent 69) Adult stem cells may be found in ________. A) hair follicles B) the brain C) red bone marrow D) skeletal muscle E) All of the choices are correct. 70) Blood plasma and interstitial fluid are separated from each other; therefore, there is little communication and exchange between these fluids. 71) Which of the following is FALSE regarding the extracellular fluid compartment? A) It is made up of blood plasma and interstitial fluid. B) Its volume is regulated by the kidneys. C) It makes up 65% of the total body water. D) It communicates with the intracellular fluid compartment. Human Physiology, 15e (Fox) Chapter 3 Cell Structure and Genetic Control 1) The ________ is the liquid portion of the cell between the plasma membrane and nucleus. A) cytoskeleton B) peroxisome C) cytosol D) phospholipids 2) Choose the correct statement regarding the structure of the plasma membrane. A) The hydrophobic center of the plasma membrane will restrict the movement of fat-soluble substances through the membrane. B) The membrane is composed of water-soluble molecules, to allow movement of water between the fluid compartments. C) Carbohydrates in the plasma membrane can serve as a source of immediate energy for the cell. D) The movement of proteins in the plasma membrane allows for cellular adaptations to the extracellular environment. 3) Proteins located on the surface of the plasma membrane can act as ________ for hormones. A) receptors B) enzymes C) neurotransmitters D) pseudopods 4) Proteins that are partially embedded on one side of the plasma membrane are ________. A) integral proteins B) transport proteins C) peripheral proteins D) fluid proteins 5) The plasma membrane is referred to as a mosaic because of the presence of ________. A) stationary proteins in a uniform arrangement B) carbohydrates in changing patterns C) phospholipids that are in constant motion D) moving proteins in a random arrangement 6) The arrangement of ________ and ________ contributes to the flexibility of the plasma membrane. A) protein; carbohydrate B) cholesterol; protein C) phospholipids; protein D) cholesterol; phospholipids 7) Which of the following is NOT a function of membrane proteins? A) Transport B) Energy production C) Structural support D) Receptors 8) How are the phospholipids arranged to form the plasma membrane? A) Single layer with hydrophilic heads outward B) Double layer with hydrophobic tails facing inward toward each other C) Double layer with hydrophilic heads facing inward toward each other D) Double layer with phospholipids on the outside and proteins on the inside 9) Hydrophilic molecules can move unaided into and out of cells regardless of size. 10) Cells that perform ________ move through the ________ by amoeboid movement. A) pinocytosis; cytosol B) phagocytosis; extracellular matrix C) phagocytosis; cytosol D) pinocytosis; extracellular matrix 11) Particulate matter is nonspecifically taken into cells by the process of ________. A) exocytosis B) phagocytosis C) pinocytosis D) receptor-mediated endocytosis 12) Phagocytosis is important for ________. A) body defense against foreign organic matter B) promoting inflammation C) removal of old and dying cells D) All of the choices are correct. 13) Receptor-mediated endocytosis would be most appropriate in a situation where the cell needs to selectively control the amount of a substance that is taken into a cell. 14) Intake of a specific molecule from the extracellular compartment by a cell occurs through ________. A) phagocytosis B) exocytosis C) receptor-mediated endocytosis D) apoptosis 15) The process by which cells secrete cellular products into the extracellular environment is ________. A) phagocytosis B) endocytosis C) exocytosis D) pinocytosis 16) Release of neurotransmitters occurs via ________. A) exocytosis B) endocytosis C) phagocytosis D) pinocytosis 17) Pinocytosis is a specific type of exocytosis. 18) Larger molecules such as cholesterol would be taken into a cell by receptor-mediated endocytosis. 19) Phagocytosis differs from endocytosis in that during phagocytosis ________. A) the plasma membrane invaginates to produce a furrow that pinches off inside the cell B) the plasma membrane extends outwards with pseudopods to surround the substance C) specific membrane receptors bind to the molecules to be brought into the cell D) None of the choices are correct. 20) The only flagellated cells in humans are ________. A) ova B) sperm C) goblet cells D) tumor cells 21) Which of the following locations have ciliated cells? A) Respiratory and digestive systems B) Female reproductive and lymphatic systems C) Respiratory and female reproductive systems D) Digestive and lymphatic systems 22) The centrosome is responsible for ________. A) making cilia B) making microtubules C) pulling duplicated chromosomes apart D) All of the choices are correct. 23) All body cells have motile cilia with a "9+2" structure. 24) Folds of the plasma membrane that increase surface area are called ________. A) cilia B) microvilli C) flagella D) vesicles 25) Cells with large numbers of microvilli on their apical surface are probably involved in ________. A) movement of the body B) reabsorption of molecules, such as during the production of urine C) detoxification of chemicals D) secretion of neurotransmitters 26) Microtubules and microfilaments are the primary components of the ________. A) cytosol B) nucleus C) cytoskeleton D) plasma membrane 27) Which of the following is NOT an example of an inclusion? A) Glycogen B) Actin C) Melanin D) Triglycerides 28) Which type of lysosome contains undigested wastes? A) Secondary lysosome B) Residual body C) Primary lysosome D) Tertiary body 29) The pH of the cytoplasm is ________ than the interior of a primary lysosome. A) more basic B) more acidic C) neutral D) less basic 30) Tay-Sachs disease is caused by a genetic defect that causes accumulation of wastes and other molecules within cells. For this to occur, the genetic defect must affect the activity of ________ enzymes. A) mitochondrial B) lysosomal C) centrosomal D) ribosomal 31) What process involves the destruction of worn-out organelles by lysosomes? A) Exocytosis B) Pinocytosis C) Autophagy D) None of the choices are correct. 32) A cell which is actively involved in the detoxification of chemicals would contain large quantities of ________. A) ribosomes B) mitochondria C) peroxisomes D) rough endoplasmic reticulum 33) Membrane enclosed organelles containing oxidative enzymes that form hydrogen peroxide are ________. A) lysosomes B) centrosomes C) peroxisomes D) chromosomes 34) What enzyme is needed to prevent excessive accumulation of hydrogen peroxide from peroxisome activity? A) Peroxidase B) Catalase C) Oxidate D) Maltase 35) The organelle involved in the production of energy is the ________. A) mitochondria B) ribosome C) cytoskeleton D) centriole 36) The folded inner membrane of a mitochondrion is called ________. A) rugae B) plicae C) cristae D) microvilli 37) All mitochondria that an individual has came solely from the mother's fertilized egg cell. 38) The organelle that acts as enzymes for protein synthesis is the ________. A) mitochondrion B) ribosome C) nucleolus D) lysosome 39) Individuals using anabolic steroids would have increased amounts of smooth endoplasmic reticulum in their liver cells. 40) Cells actively involved in secreting proteins would contain large numbers or quantities of ________. A) mitochondria B) peroxisomes C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum 41) Cells which contain large numbers of mitochondria and large amounts of smooth endoplasmic reticulum are most likely ________. A) bladder cells B) bone cells C) lung cells D) skeletal muscle cells 42) What organelle functions to chemically modify cellular products and package them in vesicles? A) Golgi complex B) Mitochondrion C) Lysosome D) Ribosome 43) The process of recycling cellular proteins that had been released by exocytosis and brought back into the cell is called ________. A) mediated transport B) active transport C) autophagy D) retrograde transport 44) Cells synthesizing large quantities of proteins would have numerous nucleoli. 45) The process of gene expression occurs as ________. A) genetic transcription and genetic transduction B) genetic translation and genetic degradation C) genetic transcription and genetic translation D) genetic transduction and genetic degradation 46) Proteins and mRNA exit the nucleus via ________. A) nuclear pores B) endoplasmic reticulum C) vesicles D) centromeres 47) The function of the ________ is to produce ribosomal RNA. A) chromatin B) centromere C) lysosomes D) nucleolus 48) Which of the following is FALSE regarding the nuclear envelope? A) Double-layered B) Fused in areas by nuclear pore complexes C) Single-layered D) Contains nuclear pores 49) All body cells have a single, centralized nucleus. 50) How many genes are humans estimated to have? A) 25,000 B) 100,000 C) 3 million D) 3 billion 51) The spooling of DNA around histones creates particles called ________. A) nucleoli B) proteosomes C) nucleosomes D) euchromatin 52) How many proteins does it appear that humans can produce? A) 25,000 B) 100,000 C) 3 million D) 3 billion 53) The term "proteome" refers to all of the genes in a particular individual. 54) One possible reason that the proteome is so much larger than the genome is that mRNAs can be spliced in alternative ways, thereby increasing the number of products produced from a particular gene. 55) Which of the following is NOT an explanation for how one gene can produce more than one protein? A) Posttranslational methylation and phosphorylation B) Different groups of polypeptides associating to make different proteins C) Various cuts and splices of mRNA D) Different carbohydrates bonded to the protein 56) Genes present in heterochromatin are more readily expressed than euchromatin. 57) Chromatin that is active in genetic transcription is called ________. A) euchromatin B) homochromatic C) heterochromatin D) embryonic chromatin 58) Chromatin is comprised of ________ and ________. A) phospholipids; DNA B) DNA; protein C) RNA; protein D) DNA; RNA 59) What chemical change occurs to histones that will turn on genetic transcription? A) Acetylation B) Acidification C) Phosphorylation D) Differentiation 60) What enzyme is needed for transcription? A) Spliceosomes B) RNA polymerase C) RNA promoter D) DNA polymerase 61) Precursor mRNA is larger than the mRNA it forms. 62) Pre-mRNA contains noncoding regions called ________. A) exons B) introns C) small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs) D) spliceosomes 63) Small RNA and protein regions are joined together to make functional mRNA by ________. A) spliceosomes B) introns C) snRNPs D) Both spliceosomes and snRNPs are correct. 64) miRNA can be made from particular introns that have been removed from pre-mRNA. 65) microRNA is ________. A) single-stranded B) complementary to a particular mRNA C) partially complementary to many mRNAs D) produced in large numbers by tumor cells 66) Genetic translation occurs in ribosomes located in the ________ of the cell. A) nucleus B) plasma membrane C) cytoplasm D) Golgi apparatus 67) A codon codes for a(n) ________. A) mRNA B) fatty acid C) carbohydrate D) amino acid 68) RNA that has the function of bringing amino acids to the ribosome during translation is called ________ RNA. A) transfer B) messenger C) ribosomal D) nuclear 69) The ________ of the messenger RNA is recognized by the ________ of the transfer RNA. A) triplet; codon B) codon; anticodon C) anticodon; codon D) anticodon; triplet 70) Protein synthesis requires ________. A) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase to link amino acids to specific tRNA molecules B) secreted proteins to be synthesized by cytosolic polyribosomes C) recognition of the anticodon in mRNA by the codon in tRNA D) the presence of transcription factors 71) Anticodons found in mRNA allow for base pairing with the codons in tRNA. 72) Molecules which aid in the folding of a polypeptide chain into its tertiary structure are called ________. A) spliceosomes B) ubiquitin C) centrosomes D) chaperones 73) Proteins to be used by the cell will fold into their secondary or tertiary structures at polyribosomes in the cytoplasm. 74) A cell that is required to make large amounts of secretory proteins would be abundant in rough endoplasmic reticulum. 75) The primarily hydrophilic leader sequence of secretory proteins allows it to be inserted into the cisterna of the endoplasmic reticulum. 76) A cell lacking a Golgi apparatus would not be able to add ________ to proteins. A) lipids B) proteins C) carbohydrates D) acids 77) Which of the following is NOT a function of the Golgi complex? A) Packaging final proteins in vesicles B) Modifying proteins C) Separation of different types of proteins D) Removal of the leader sequence from the protein 78) Regulatory proteins are degraded outside of lysosomes by binding to ________ and then broken down by the proteasome. A) ubiquitin B) chaperones C) lysosomes D) ribosomes 79) Why is it necessary for the cell to degrade some cellular proteins? A) To eliminate incorrectly folded proteins B) To remove specific enzymes and plasma membrane proteins C) For tight control of the cell cycle D) All of the choices are correct. 80) In the nucleus of a diploid cell, the amount of cytosine would equal the amount of ________. A) adenine B) thymine C) uracil D) guanine 81) DNA replication is ________. A) conservative B) semiconservative C) dispersive D) Both semiconservative and dispersive are correct. 82) Cells in the G1 phase of the cell cycle contain half as much DNA as cells in the G2 phase. 83) What enzyme breaks the hydrogen bonds between the bases of DNA in preparation for replication? A) DNA polymerase B) DNA helicase C) Spliceosome D) Cyclin D 84) Which stage of the cell cycle immediately precedes the S phase? A) G1 B) G2 C) M D) None of the choices are correct. 85) A gene that stalls cell division if damaged DNA is present would be considered a proto-oncogene. 86) The duration of the cell cycle is decreased in response to increased amounts of ________. A) telomerase B) cyclin C) DNA helicase D) proteasome 87) Oncogenes ________. A) prevent formation of cancer cells B) block the ability of cyclins to stimulate cell division C) stimulate apoptosis D) often stimulate cyclin-dependent kinases that speed up the G1 phase 88) Cells lacking lysosomes would be unable to undergo apoptosis. 89) The process of cell death in which cell membranes remain intact but become bubbled and the nuclei condense is known as ________. A) endocytosis B) phagocytosis C) exocytosis D) apoptosis 90) The process of tissue death in which cells swell, rupture their membranes, and burst is called ________. A) apoptosis B) phagocytosis C) necrosis D) transcytosis 91) Apoptosis involves the activation of enzymes called ________, which are the cell "executioners" that activate other enzymes in the nucleus that fragment the DNA. A) neutrophils B) lysosomes C) caspases D) peroxisomes 92) Damage to cellular DNA that cannot be repaired would induce ________. A) mitosis B) meiosis C) apoptosis D) cell division 93) Cells which will undergo apoptosis would contain large numbers or quantities of ________. A) centrioles B) lysosomes C) golgi apparatus D) rough endoplasmic reticulum 94) The family of enzymes in cells activated during apoptosis are ________. A) necrotic enzymes B) chromatids C) caspases D) centromeres 95) A friend lifts weights for several months, and his muscles visibly increase in size. He also has calluses on his palms from the barbells. The increase in muscle size is due to ________, while the calluses are due to ________. A) anaplasia; hyperplasia B) hypertrophy; atrophy C) dysplasia; hypertrophy D) hypertrophy; hyperplasia 96) Germinal cells can most likely divide indefinitely due to the activity of an enzyme called ________. A) caspases B) telomerase C) DNA polymerase D) RNA transferase 97) Loss of DNA sequences at the ends of chromosomes in the ________ region may cause cell senescence. A) centromere B) telomere C) mitotic D) anticodon 98) Chromosomes are lined up at the equator of the cell during this stage of mitosis. A) prophase B) anaphase C) metaphase D) telophase 99) Growth due to an increase in cell number is called ________. A) hypertrophy B) hyperplasia C) atrophy D) dystrophy 100) Growth due to increased cell size is called ________. A) hypertrophy B) hyperplasia C) atrophy D) dystrophy 101) Chromosomes move to opposite poles in ________. A) anaphase B) metaphase C) prophase D) telophase 102) Centrosomes replicate during ________. A) anaphase B) cytokinesis C) interphase D) telophase 103) The pericentriolar material is believed to be responsible for ________. A) cytoskeletal organization B) centriole replication C) kinetochore formation D) centrosome formation 104) Cellular senescence may be prevented by ________. A) increased DNA polymerase activity B) increased telomerase activity C) increased RNA polymerase activity D) increased synthase activity 105) Telomeres serve to ________. A) increase apoptosis B) cap the ends of DNA and protect it from damage C) break DNA and cause it to degrade D) cause replication of genes 106) Crossing over would contribute to the variability in genetic expression between siblings. 107) Telomere DNA is produced from a(n) ________ template. A) DNA B) telomerase C) RNA D) ATP 108) The division of the cytoplasm in mitosis is called ________. A) anaphase B) cytokinesis C) senescence D) kinetochore 109) The movement of chromosomes during mitosis is due to ________. A) spindle fibers B) telomeres C) chromatids D) actin and myosin 110) Meiosis is only observed in the ________ and ________. A) skin; finger nails B) ovaries; breasts C) testes; skin D) ovaries; testes 111) This organ contains cells that are haploid. A) testis B) liver C) lung D) heart 112) This process is also known as reduction division. A) cell division B) meiosis C) mitosis D) genetic translation 113) Crossing over occurs during ________. A) anaphase I of meiosis B) metaphase of mitosis C) prophase I of meiosis D) metaphase II of meiosis 114) Crossing over is important for ________. A) increasing genetic variability B) preventing mutations C) limiting genetic recombination D) maintaining chromosome structure 115) Genes that have been silenced are passed to daughter cells during mitosis and meiosis in a process called ________. A) apoptosis B) necrosis C) hypertrophy D) epigenetic inheritance 116) Gene silencing may be accomplished by ________. A) removal of the gene B) methylation of cytosine bases in DNA C) crossing over D) genetic recombination 117) In epigenetic inheritance ________. A) both homologous chromosomes are inactivated B) one set of the homologous chromosomes is silenced C) one allele of a homologous pair is expressed D) None of the choices are correct. Human Physiology, 15e (Fox) Chapter 5 Cell Respiration and Metabolism 1) Metabolism is a term that refers to all of the reactions in the body that involve energy transformations. 2) An increase in stored triglyceride molecules ________, and would be considered a/an ________ reaction. A) creates ATP; anabolic B) utilizes ATP; anabolic C) uses energy; catabolic D) uses energy; decomposition 3) Which of the following is NOT a primary catabolic source of energy to produce ATP? A) fatty acids B) cholesterol C) amino acids D) glucose 4) The final electron acceptor in aerobic cell respiration is ________. A) water B) oxygen C) carbon dioxide D) ATP 5) Anabolic reactions do not ________. A) utilize energy B) synthesize molecules within cells C) store energy D) release energy 6) Phosphorylation of glucose "traps" the glucose within a cell. 7) Glycolysis is an endergonic reaction. 8) Glycolysis converts glucose into two ________ molecules. A) glycogen B) lactic acid C) acetyl CoA D) pyruvic acid 9) To go through glycolysis, ________ ATP per glucose molecule must be "invested" in order to activate the glucose molecule. A) one B) two C) three D) four 10) How many hydrogen molecules are released in glycolysis? A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four 11) Each pair of hydrogens generated in glycolysis are used to ________. A) reduce 2 molecules of NAD B) oxidize 2 molecules of NAD C) reduce 2 molecules of FAD D) oxidize 2 molecules of FAD 12) Glycolysis results in a net gain of two ATP formed by direct ________ of ADP molecules using phosphates taken from glycolytic intermediates. A) phosphorylation B) hydrolysis C) reduction D) oxidation 13) In the breakdown of a molecule of glucose in the cytoplasm, ________ molecules of ATP are produced. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 14) Lactic acid fermentation only occurs when oxygen is absent. 15) Skeletal muscle would have a much greater capability to utilize ________ and ________ than cardiac muscle to produce ATP. A) glucose; fatty acids B) glucose; lactic acid C) fatty acids; lactic acid D) amino acids; fatty acids 16) Lactic acid is the result of LDH (lactic acid dehydrogenase) mediated ________ of pyruvic acid with electrons taken from NADH + H+. A) oxidation B) reduction C) phosphorylation D) hydrolysis 17) Anaerobic metabolism regenerates the ________ required for glycolysis. A) NAD B) FAD C) ATP D) GTP 18) Anaerobic metabolism is the primary source of ATP production in ________. A) red blood cells B) white blood cells C) neurons D) skeletal muscle cells 19) ATP can only be produced through aerobic respiration by ________. A) red blood cells B) cardiac muscle fibers C) skeletal muscle fibers D) skin cells 20) Anaerobic respiration metabolism is triggered when the ratio of ________ falls below a critical level. A) carbon dioxide supply to oxygen need B) oxygen supply to glucose need C) glucose supply to glucose need D) oxygen supply to oxygen need 21) To form lactic acid from pyruvic acid it is necessary to have ________ present. A) NAD B) FAD C) NADH D) FADH 22) What percentage of energy released by aerobic respiration of glucose is captured by ATP? A) 25–30% B) 30–34% C) 38–40% D) 42–46% 23) Acetyl coenzyme A enables the products of glycolysis to enter the citric acid cycle. 24) During the conversion of one pyruvic acid to acetyl coenzyme A, ________ molecule(s) of carbon dioxide is/are produced. A) no B) one C) two D) four 25) A deficiency of ________ would limit production of coenzyme A. A) pantothenic acid B) linoleic acid C) folic acid D) thiamine 26) Formation of the maximum number of acetyl CoA molecules from one glucose, produces ________ molecules of carbon dioxide. A) zero B) one C) two D) four 27) Aerobic cellular respiration ________. A) uses glucose B) generates water C) generates oxygen D) Both 'uses glucose' and 'generates water' are correct. 28) Acetyl CoA is generated from ________. A) oxaloacetate B) pyruvic acid C) citric acid D) water 29) In the complete process of aerobic respiration, the major source of reduced NAD and FAD is glycolysis. 30) Choose the statement that does NOT characterize the citric acid cycle. A) Acetyl CoA and NAD are the end-products. B) The citric acid cycle could not occur in cells lacking mitochondria. C) Amino acids can bypass the citric acid cycle when being used to produce ATP. D) Carbon dioxide is a byproduct of the citric acid cycle. 31) The primary role of the citric acid cycle is to complete the oxidation of glucose started by glycolysis. 32) One glucose would generate ________ NADH molecules via the citric acid cycle. A) two B) three C) six D) eight 33) Each turn of the citric acid cycle directly produces ________ molecule(s) of ATP. A) one B) two C) four D) no 34) Each turn of the citric acid cycle produces ________. A) 2 FADH2, 1 ATP, and 3 NADH B) 1 FADH2, 1 ATP, and 3 NADH C) 3 FADH2, 2 ATP, and 1 NADH D) 1 FADH2, 3 ATP, and 2 NADH 35) The total amount of FADH2 produced by one turn of the citric acid cycle is ________. A) one molecule B) two molecules C) 15 molecules D) 30 molecules 36) The importance of the citric acid cycle in energy production is the formation of significant amounts of ________. A) ATP B) lactic acid C) NADH D) carbon dioxide 37) The ATP generated in the citric acid cycle ________. A) is produced directly from the 5th reaction B) is produced from the reduction of NAD C) comes from GTP D) comes from oxidative phosphorylation 38) The electron transport chain system is responsible for the production of the majority of cellular ATP. 39) Energy lost during the process of aerobic cell respiration is given off as ________. A) carbon dioxide B) water C) oxygen D) metabolic heat 40) The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain system is ________. A) NAD B) hydrogen C) oxygen D) ATP 41) The electron transport chain functions to ________. A) create a proton gradient across the outer mitochondrial membrane B) reduce oxygen molecules in order to create the energy to break down ATP C) create a proton gradient across the cytoplasm that reduces oxygen molecules D) reduce oxygen molecules in order to create the energy to bind phosphate molecules together 42) An absence of ________ would have no impact on the electron transport system. A) coenzyme Q B) coenzyme A C) flavin mononucleotide (FMN) D) cytochrome b 43) The transport of protons from the intermembrane space to the mitochondrial matrix occurs via ________. A) ATP synthase B) transaminase C) lactate dehydrogenase D) FADH-coenzyme Q reductase complex 44) What theory explains the ability of the electron transport system to pump protons between the inner and outer mitochondrial membranes? A) Tricarboxylic acid theory B) Chemiosmotic theory C) Phosphorylation theory D) Proton pump theory 45) How many H+ do the first two proton pumps of the electron transport system transport? A) Two each B) Three each C) Four each D) Eight each 46) On average, each FADH2 generates 1.5 ATP in oxidative phosphorylation. 47) It takes four protons to produce 1 ATP that will enter the cytoplasm of a cell. 48) The electron transport system is a series of ________ reactions. A) composition-decomposition B) dehydration synthesis-hydrolysis C) oxidation-reduction D) reversible 49) The actual yield of ATP from 1 molecule of glucose is ________. A) 18–20 ATP B) 36–38 ATP C) 30–32 ATP D) 26–28 ATP 50) ATP formation in glycolysis and the citric acid cycle is called ________. A) substrate level phosphorylation B) oxidative phosphorylation C) direct phosphorylation D) Both substrate level phosphorylation and direct phosphorylation are correct. 51) ATP formation in the electron transport system is called ________. A) substrate level phosphorylation B) oxidative phosphorylation C) direct phosphorylation D) Both substrate level phosphorylation and direct phosphorylation are correct. 52) The presence of elevated ATP in the cell stimulates synthesis of ________. A) proteins and glycogen B) triglycerides and proteins C) triglycerides and glycogen D) proteins and cholesterol 53) The opposite process of glycogenesis is ________. A) glycolysis B) glyconeogenesis C) glycogenolysis D) gluconeogenesis 54) Blood glucose concentrations can be maintained by hydrolysis of glycogen in the ________. A) liver B) skeletal muscle C) smooth muscle D) kidneys 55) Cori cycle activity would be greater when skeletal muscle is relying on beta oxidation to produce ATP rather than glycolysis. 56) The Cori cycle converts ________ to pyruvic acid. A) glucose B) acetyl CoA C) lactic acid D) alcohol 57) Glycolysis would be inhibited by ________. A) a lack of oxygen B) an excess of ATP C) an excess of ADP D) None of the choices are correct. 58) Which of the following can undergo metabolic conversion to acetyl CoA and enter the citric acid cycle? A) Glucose B) Fatty acids C) Protein D) All of the choices are correct. 59) Because it is most rapidly broken down, the majority of energy within the body is stored as triglycerides. 60) The amount of energy contained in fat is ________. A) 359 B) 200 C) 190 D) 140 61) The process of fat formation from acetyl CoA is called ________. A) lipogenesis B) lipolysis C) beta-oxidation D) deamination 62) The hydrolysis of triglycerides to fatty acids and glycerol is called ________. A) lipogenesis B) lipolysis C) beta-oxidation D) deamination 63) Beta-oxidation of an 18-carbon fatty acid will yield ________ acetyl CoA molecules. A) 9 B) 6 C) 18 D) 36 64) How many ATP would be formed from an 18-carbon fatty acid? A) 32 B) 60 C) 90 D) 122 65) Fatty acid metabolism ________. A) occurs via glycolysis B) occurs via oxidative deamination C) occurs via the Cori cycle D) occurs via beta-oxidation 66) In newborns, ________ occurs in brown fat. A) lipogenesis B) thermogenesis C) gluconeogenesis D) biogenesis 67) What is the purpose of white adipose tissue? A) Thermogenesis B) To provide a major source of energy for resting skeletal muscle and many other body tissues C) To provide an ATP source for newborns D) To ensure a reliable source of energy for anaerobic metabolism 68) Sweet smelling breath may be the result of elevated ________ in the blood. A) glucose B) fructose C) acetone D) cholesterol 69) The primary site of ketone body synthesis is ________. A) the lung B) the kidney C) the liver D) adipose tissue 70) Acetyl CoA has the ability to ________. A) directly enter the citric acid cycle B) be transformed back into glucose if unused C) directly form pyruvic acid D) All of the choices are correct. 71) Ketone bodies are produced due to ________. A) excessive protein breakdown B) excessive carbohydrate breakdown C) excessive fat breakdown D) All of the choices are correct. 72) Unlike children, if a positive nitrogen balance is found in an adult, it is an indication that body tissues are being metabolized for energy. 73) The process in which an amine group is transferred from one amino acid to another is called ________. A) deamination B) beta-oxidation C) phosphorylation D) transamination 74) How many amino acids are essential for an adult? A) Eight B) Nine C) Ten D) Twelve 75) Keto-acids are produced from amino acids through ________. A) transamination B) oxidative deamination C) beta-oxidation D) phosphorylation 76) A dietary deficiency of ________ would not cause any disruptions in homeostasis. A) arginine B) lysine C) methionine D) tryptophan 77) Prior to entering the citric acid cycle, amino acids must be reductively deaminated. 78) During times of inadequate energy intake, or in cases of a high protein diet, amino acids may enter the aerobic respiration metabolic pathway at the same level as ________. A) pyruvic acid B) acetyl CoA C) citric acid cycle D) All of the choices are correct. 79) Ammonia is produced through the process of ________. A) transamination B) oxidative deamination C) glycogenolysis D) the Cori cycle 80) Which vitamin is a required as a coenzyme for transamination? A) B3 B) B6 C) B9 D) B12 81) A person fasting for several days would meet the majority of their blood glucose needs through ________. A) glycogenolysis B) gluconeogenesis C) lipolysis D) ketogenesis 82) Oxidative deamination is required for ________ to occur. A) carbohydrate synthesis B) carbohydrate breakdown C) protein synthesis D) protein breakdown 83) Fatty acids are NOT an important energy source for ________. A) the brain B) resting skeletal muscle C) the liver D) the heart 84) What type of tissue is especially dependent on adequate plasma glucose levels? A) Skeletal muscle B) Cardiac muscle C) Nervous D) Liver 85) Accumulation of lactic acid contributes to ________. A) decreased brain function B) oxygen debt C) glycogen synthesis D) decreased liver gluconeogenesis 86) Which amino acid serves as a channel through which other amino acids can form keto-acids? A) Glutamic acid B) Glycine C) Aspartic acid D) Alanine 87) Which of the following is NOT a main substrate for gluconeogenesis? A) Lactic acid B) Glycerol C) Pyruvic acid D) Alanine Human Physiology, 15e (Fox) Chapter 8 The Central Nervous System 1) The neural tube and neural crest cells are of endodermal origin. 2) The forebrain develops into the telencephalon and the diencephalon. 3) A patient is diagnosed with Multiple Sclerosis, which causes a loss of myelination of the axons in the brain. This would interfere with transmission of information between nuclei. 4) The cerebral cortex is composed of superficial white matter with underlying gray matter. 5) Gray matter is found only in the cerebral cortex. 6) The midbrain forms from the ________. A) telencephalon B) mesencephalon C) myelencephalon D) diencephalon 7) The cerebellum forms from the ________. A) telencephalon B) metencephalon C) myelencephalon D) diencephalon 8) Cerebrospinal fluid is found ________. A) within the central canal B) within the ventricles C) within the olfactory bulbs D) Both within the central canal and within the ventricles. 9) The function of ________ is to link sensory stimuli with the appropriate motor responses. A) bipolar neurons B) interneurons C) motor neurons D) pseudounipolar neurons 10) The total percentage of blood flow to the body per minute that goes to the brain is ________. A) 15 B) 20 C) 25 D) 30 11) If the neural tube failed to develop properly, CSF production and circulation could be compromised. 12) Neural stem cells in adult mammalian brains are found in the ________. A) cerebral cortex B) subventricular zone C) midbrain D) subgranular zone E) Both the subventricular and subgranular zones. 13) Which area of the brain contains neural stem cells that are apparently important in learning and memory? A) Arcuate fasciculus B) Subgranular zone of the hippocampus C) Temporal lobe D) Cerebral cortex 14) Communication between the cerebrum and cerebellum is facilitated by the corpus callosum. 15) Damage to the parietal lobe of the cerebrum would impair the ability to distinguish between different types of sensations. 16) Choose the complete list of lobes of the cerebrum. A) Insula, temporal, parietal, pons, and occipital B) Temporal, frontal, insula, cerebellum, occipital C) Frontal, parietal, temporal, insula, occipital D) Cerebrum, midbrain, thalamus, pons, medulla oblongata 17) The ________ is a cerebral lobe that is involved in memory and integration of sensory information (mostly pain) with visceral responses. A) temporal B) frontal C) parietal D) insula 18) Choose the statement that characterizes the cerebral cortex. A) Sensations from the feet would be on the most inferior area of the somatesthetic cortex. B) Areas of the body with the greatest density of receptors will have larger areas on the somatesthetic cortex. C) The hands and feet have a similar density of receptors. D) Damage to the left side of the motor cortex would impair muscular control on the left side of the body. 19) Damage to the temporal lobe of the cerebrum would have the greatest impact on ________. A) voluntary skeletal muscle contraction B) integration of cerebral activities C) hearing D) vision 20) What type of neurons are found in the precentral gyrus? A) Sensory neurons B) Lower motor neurons C) Upper motor neurons D) Middle motor neurons 21) What structure separates the frontal and parietal lobes? A) Corpus callosum B) Central sulcus C) Lateral sulcus D) Longitudinal fissure 22) A raised area on the cerebral cortex is a ________. A) sulcus B) fissure C) gyrus D) mirror neuron 23) A dysfunction of ________ neurons would limit the ability to learn from and mimic the dance steps of an instructor. A) sensory neurons B) motor neurons C) interneurons D) mirror neurons 24) A(n) ________ would detect increased activity in the brain in response to stimuli. A) computed tomography scan B) electroencephalogram C) functional magnetic resonance imaging scan D) positron emission tomography scan 25) Brain metabolism may be best studied by ________. A) electroencephalography B) computed tomography C) magnetic resonance imaging D) positron-emission tomography 26) Abnormalities found on a(n) ________ may signify disturbances in the ability of neurons to communicate properly. A) computed tomograph scan B) electroencephalogram C) magnetic resonance image D) positron-emission tomograph 27) Which type of EEG pattern in an awake adult is indicative of brain damage? A) Alpha waves B) Beta waves C) Theta waves D) Delta waves 28) An electroencephalogram obtained from an adult who is thinking would probably display many ________ waves. A) alpha B) beta C) delta D) theta 29) REM sleep is unique from other stages in that ________. A) memory consolidation can occur B) it causes ideal rest, without emotional activation C) breathing and heart rate mimic the patterns during waking hours D) learning from activities during the day occurs 30) Impairment of voluntary movements is absolutely indicative of damage to the basal nuclei. 31) Chorea is most likely to result from damage to the ________. A) caudate nucleus B) premotor cortex C) primary motor cortex D) insula 32) The basal nuclei include the ________. A) corpus striatum B) supraoptic nucleus C) reticular formation D) All of the choices are correct. 33) Impaired motor coordination in Parkinson disease is often due to ________. A) degeneration of the red nucleus B) degeneration of the substantia nigra C) lack of regulation of the cerebral peduncle D) degeneration of the mesolimbic system 34) Which neurotransmitter is NOT associated with basal nuclei function? A) Dopamine B) GABA C) Acetylcholine D) Glutamate 35) In most most individuals, writing skills would be impaired if damage to the ________ occurred. A) right cerebral hemisphere B) left cerebral hemisphere C) corpus callosum D) None of the choices are correct. 36) Recognition of your best friend's face is a function of ________ cerebral hemisphere(s). A) the right B) the left C) both 37) What is the function of the motor circuit in the brain? A) Allows for adjustment of movement to meet the demands of a task B) Inhibits excessive stimuli from reaching the cerebral cortex C) Activates the RAS D) Helps coordinate the timing and force of joint movements 38) A person with damage to the left cerebral hemisphere could have several speaking problems, but yet have no problems with singing. 39) After an accident, a patient has difficulty moving the limbs on his right side. Damage was most likely sustained by the ________. A) left cerebral cortex B) left globus pallidus C) right cerebral cortex D) cerebellum 40) Destruction of the general interpretive area, or Wernicke's area, would be apparent if someone could understand what they are hearing, but cannot form coherent words in reply. 41) Aphasias are most often associated with damage to ________ and ________ areas. A) Wernicke's area; the angular gyrus B) fornix; motor speech C) motor speech; Wernicke's D) the angular gyrus; septal nuclei 42) Individuals with aphasia ________. A) often have damage to spinal nerves B) may not be able to write if the angular gyrus is damaged C) often speak slowly if Wernicke's area is damaged D) often form nonsensical sentences if the motor speech area is damaged 43) A "word salad" speaking pattern occurs when ________. A) Wernicke's area is damaged B) the motor speech area is damaged C) the angular gyrus is damaged D) spinal nerves are damaged 44) What structure connects Wernicke's area to the motor speech area? A) Corpus striatum B) Angular gyrus C) Arcuate fasciculus D) Corpus callosum 45) The connections between the cerebral cortex and the limbic system should allow individuals to consciously moderate their fear responses. 46) Damage to the Papez circuit prevents communication between the limbic system and ________. A) olfactory bulbs B) hippocampus C) diencephalon D) cerebrum 47) Ablation of the amygdaloid body would primarily result in ________. A) decreased sex drive B) calming of anger C) loss of ability to detect olfactory inputs D) loss of appetite 48) The hypothalamus and the limbic system are involved in ________. A) aggression B) fear C) sex D) goal-directed behavior E) All of the choices are correct. 49) Which of the following is NOT part of the limbic system? A) Cingulate gyrus B) Angular gyrus C) Amygdaloid body D) Hippocampus 50) The enzyme that catalyzes the formation of a particular damaging amyloid β-peptide, and is implicated in inherited forms of early-onset Alzheimer's disease is ________. A) γ-secretase B) α-secretase C) β-secretase D) δ-secretase 51) Alzheimer disease is ________. A) associated with excessive accumulation of cortical neurons, preventing proper synaptic transmission in the brain B) a genetic disease with a clinical course similar to Parkinson disease C) multifactorial, involving potential changes in enzyme, protein and lipid activity in the brain. D) not associated with or mediated by any lifestyle changes 52) A patient who sustains a blow to the side of the head above the cheekbone cannot remember the words to a new song on the radio, no matter how many times he hears it. The head injury likely damaged his ________. A) inferior temporal B) inferior lateral C) prefrontal D) medial temporal 53) The famous patient "H.M." could not remember events that occurred after his memory was damaged after he had brain surgery to treat his epilepsy. He retained his perceptual and motor skills, but lost his memory of new facts and events. Thus, H.M.'s deficit was in ________. A) nondeclarative or implicit memory B) declarative or implicit memory C) declarative or explicit memory D) nondeclarative or explicit memory 54) The conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory would be inhibited by ablation of the ________. A) pons B) cerebral nuclei C) hippocampus D) occipital lobe 55) The conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory is called memory ________. A) ablation B) consolidation C) recognition D) translation 56) Riding a bicycle with ease after years of not riding is an example of ________ memory. A) episodic B) semantic C) procedural D) working 57) What specific area of the brain has shown to be involved in complex problem-solving? A) Hippocampus B) Prefrontal cortex C) Amygdaloid body D) Frontal lobe 58) What type of memory is involved in learning the material in Human Physiology about memory? A) Semantic B) Implicit C) Episodic D) Procedural 59) Being able to recognize the face of a schoolmate at your 30-year reunion would be a function of the ________. A) inferior temporal lobes B) occipital lobe C) medial temporal lobes D) anterior frontal lobes 60) An example of working memory would be ________. A) recognizing a threatening picture B) remembering the last hockey game you attended C) looking up an address and addressing an envelope D) playing a song on the piano you learned as a child 61) A circular path of neurons synapsing with one after another is called a ________ circuit. A) recurrent B) dendritic C) synaptic D) parallel 62) What ion is involved in stimulating genetic transcription needed for learning and memory? A) Na+ B) K+ C) Ca2+ D) NO 63) In long-term potentiation dealing with memory, what regulatory protein do calcium ions bind to? A) Kinase B) Calmodulin C) CREB D) CaMKII 64) What is the function of CREB in long-term memory? A) Opens Ca2+ channels B) Addition of AMPA receptors C) Draws more glutamate into the neuron D) Activates genes to make proteins such as dendritic spines 65) Neurogenesis in the hippocampus may be involved in learning and memory. 66) The ________ is involved in the improvement of memory when the memory has an emotional content. A) caudate nucleus B) substantia nigra C) amygdaloid body D) fornix 67) Damage to the ________ will cause a lack of motivation and sexual desire as well as deficient cognitive functions. A) lateral prefrontal area B) hypothalamus C) amygdaloid body D) medial temporal lobe 68) The limbic system, especially the ________ and ________, are rich in "stress hormone" receptors. A) caudate nucleus; hippocampus B) hippocampus; amygdaloid body C) cingulated gyrus; amygdaloid body D) septal nuclei; hippocampus 69) Damage to the orbitofrontal area of the prefrontal cortex causes ________. A) memory deficiencies B) cognitive deficiencies C) severe impulsive/sociopathic behavior D) inhibited fear response 70) What substance can act as a retrograde messenger to increase LPT by increasing the release of glutamate from presynaptic terminals? A) Mg2+ B) Ca2+ C) NO D) ACh 71) What substance can act as a retrograde messenger to suppress release of GABA to contribute to LTP? A) Acetylcholine B) Endocannabinoid C) Carbon monoxide D) Norepinephrine 72) Damaging the diencephalon would inhibit detection of sensory stimuli. 73) The majority of sensory information is relayed to the cerebrum by the ________. A) pons B) thalamus C) hypothalamus D) medulla oblongata 74) The ________ is the dorsal diencephalon, containing the choroid plexus and the pineal gland. A) epithalamus B) hypothalamus C) thalamus D) third ventricle 75) Except for the sense of ________, all sensory information is relayed through the thalamus. A) taste B) vision C) balance D) smell 76) Interpretation of auditory inputs would be most affected by ________. A) ablation of the intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus B) ablation of the hypothalamus C) ablation to the medial geniculate nuclei of the thalamus D) ablation of the lateral geniculate nuclei of the thalamus 77) The hypothalamus does NOT ________. A) control hunger and thirst B) control reactions to odors C) control body temperature D) controls the autonomic nervous system 78) Based on experimental evidence, the ________ hypothalamus acts as the body's thermostat. A) preoptic-anterior B) lateral C) medial D) supraoptic 79) Releasing and inhibiting hormones are produced in the ________. A) hypothalamus B) anterior pituitary gland C) pineal gland D) posterior pituitary gland 80) The suprachiasmatic nuclei ________. A) are located in the anterior hypothalamus B) control melatonin secretion from the pineal gland C) contain "clock cells" that have patterns which repeat about every twenty-four hours D) All of the choices are correct. 81) The liver, heart, and kidneys all have genes involved in circadian rhythm, indicating regular daily functions in metabolism. 82) Destruction of the superior colliculi would impact an individual's hearing. 83) Ablation of the ________ in the midbrain would impair the ability to respond to sounds. A) substantia nigra B) medial colliculi C) red nucleus D) inferior colliculi 84) Visual reflexes would be impaired by damage to the ________. A) superior colliculi B) inferior colliculi C) red nucleus D) medial geniculate nuclei 85) What part of the mesolimbic system found in the midbrain is involved with behavioral reward? A) Corpora quadrigemina B) Ventral tegmental area C) Substantia nigra D) Nigrostriatal pathway 86) The pons and cerebellum comprise the metencephalon. 87) If the pons were damaged, which deficit in cranial nerve function may be present? A) Loss of vision B) Difficulty swallowing C) Inability to chew D) Inability to protrude of tongue 88) The midbrain, thalamus, and pons are all considered part of the brainstem. 89) Which brain structure contains two respiratory control centers? A) Cerebellum B) Epithalamus C) Pons D) Midbrain 90) Which of the following is NOT required to coordinate movement? A) Cerebellum B) Hypothalamus C) Basal nuclei D) Motor cortex 91) The inability to reach out and touch an object with control and accuracy may result from damage to the ________. A) pons B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) midbrain 92) Ataxia is often associated with damage to the ________. A) motor cortex B) cerebellum C) pyramidal tracts D) occipital lobe 93) What type of cerebellar cells provide communication to other brain areas? A) Purkinje cells B) Reticular cells C) Supraoptic cells D) Pyramidal cells 94) The medulla oblongata ________. A) is continuous with the midbrain B) contains the glossopharyngeal nuclei C) acts only as a relay center D) contains the nuclei of three cranial nerves 95) Which of the following is NOT a vital function of the medulla oblongata? A) Vasomotor control B) Cardiac control C) Thirst control D) Respiratory control 96) The right side of the brain controls motor activity on the left side of the body because nerve tracts decussate in the ________. A) pons B) midbrain C) thalamus D) medulla oblongata 97) Which of the following RAS neurotransmitters stimulates the cerebral cortex for wakefulness? A) Dopamine B) GABA C) Norepinephrine D) Both dopamine and norepinephrine are correct. 98) What condition is caused by a sudden failure of the RAS? A) Narcolepsy B) Parkinson's disease C) Alzheimer's disease D) Insomnia 99) Neurons of the ventrolateral preoptic nucleus (VLPO) of the hypothalamus release ________ that promotes sleep. A) GABA B) Acetylcholine C) Dopamine D) Histamine 100) The spinal cord begins at the foramen magnum and extends to the base of the fifth lumbar vertebrae. 101) In the spinal cord, the gray matter is arranged into ________ and the white matter is arranged into ________. A) columns; horns B) funiculi; tracts C) horns; funiculi D) tracts; funiculi 102) The spinocerebellar tract would carry information from sensory receptors to the cerebral cortex. 103) Sensory impulses for fine touch, precise pressures, and body movement are carried by the ________ tracts. A) anterior spinothalamic B) posterior spinocerebellar C) lateral spinothalamic D) fasciculi cuneatus and gracilis 104) The reticulospinal tracts are the major descending pathways of the pyramidal system. 105) Descending tracts carry motor impulses from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord. 106) A positive Babinski sign in adults indicates damage to the pyramidal motor tracts. 107) Nerve fibers of the ________ tract decussate in the spinal cord and are involved in regulating fine motor movements. A) lateral spinothalamic B) anterior spinothalamic C) lateral corticospinal D) anterior corticospinal 108) A spinal cord injury occurs to the posterior spinocerebellar tract on the right side. What deficits would be expected? A) Decreased sensory impulses from the cerebellum on the left side B) Decreased