NCLEX PHARMACOLOGY QUESTION BANK #1
1. Which instructions should be included in the plan of care for a patient who is prescribed ferrous
sulfate?
a. Iron compounds are not taken orally
b. Iron does not absorb
c. Iron should only be taken at night
d. Antacids should not be taken with iron
2. Which is the most common type of anemia?
a. Iron deficiency
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. Folic acid deficiency
d. B12 deficiency
3. Which antibiotic class disrupts folate metabolism in bacteria and is often combined with
trimethoprim?
a. Fluroquinolones
b. Cephalosporins
c. Aminoglycosides
d. Sulfonamides
4. Which of the following terms least describes the mechanism of action of metoprolol?
a. Alpha-1-antagonist effects
b. Beta-1 selective
c. Nonselective beta with alpha blocking
d. Nonselective alpha-blockers
5. Which of the following drug treatment strategies is associated with peptic ulcer disease?
a. Antibiotics (amoxicillin and clarithromycin)
b. Hormonal therapy
c. Corticosteroids
d. Opioids
6. Which of the following groups of antibiotics has a beta-lactam ring in the molecular structure?
a. Macrolides
b. Sulfonamides
c. Tetracyclines
d. Cephalosporins
e. Fluroquinolones
7. Which of the following diseases or disorders are more likely related to ACE inhibitors?
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Pulmonary hypertension
c. Cushing’s syndrome
d. Angina
e. Chronic kidney disease (with or without diabetes)
8. Which of the following drug classes is/are used in initial hypertension management?
a. Clonidine primary
b. Beta blockers primary
c. Thiazide or calcium channel blocker primary
d. ACE-I primary
, e. ARB primary
9. Which of the following medications is a fluroquinolone antibiotic?
a. Penicillin
b. Azithromycin
c. Amikacin
d. Ciprofloxacin
10. Which of the following is most likely an intervention for otitis media?
a. Immunoglobulins
b. Aspirin
c. Corticosteroids
d. Amoxicillin
11. Which antibiotic binds to 50S subunit of the bacteria ribosome and could most likely result in the
development of pseudomembranous colitis?
a. Tetracycline
b. Vancomycin
c. Clindamycin
d. Amoxicillin
12. Which of the following drug classes should be avoided in c disease?
a. Avoid diuretics
b. Avoid antibiotics
c. Avoid proton pump inhibitors
d. Avoid NSAIDs
13. Prescriptive authority is regulated by the State Board of Nursing, Board of Medicine, or Board of
Pharmacy, depending on the state.
a. True
b. False
14. Which of the following is most true of nurse practitioner prescribers?
a. Prescriptive authority is under the full control of the Board of Nursing in all states
b. All states allow nurse practitioners to prescribe controlled substances
c. Al states allow some level of prescription writing by nurse practitioners
d. None of the choices are correct
15. Which of the following is a non-neurotoxin treatment for head lice?
a. Malathoin (Ovide)
b. Benzoyl alcohol (Ulesfia)
c. Permethrin 1% (Nix)
d. Lindane shampoo
16. Nystatin is used for a variety of conditions. Which condition is not treated with Nystatin?
a. Onychomycosis
b. Vaginal candidiasis
c. Intestinal candidiasis
d. Oral candidiasis
17. All of the following are true regarding the treatment of scabies except?
a. Lindane does not carry risk for toxicity and can be used in children more than 2 years of
age
, b. Treatment of scabies include crotaminton, malathion, and lindane
c. Lindane, though usually effective, carries a risk for toxicity and should not be used in
children
d. Permethrin 5% cream (Elimite) is the drug of choice for the treatment of scabies in
infants greater than 2 months, and approved to use in pregnant women
18. A pediatric patient prescribed ampicillin for streptococcal pharyngitis reports new onset of
pruritic, dull red, maculopapular rash on the chest and neck. Which action is most important for
the provider to take to minimize this patient’s risk for injury?
a. Prescribe an antihistamine for the itching
b. Flag all medical records with an “Allergy to Penicillin” notice
c. Prescribe azithromycin to replace ampicillin
d. Discontinue the ampicillin
19. The 4th to the 10th week of gestation is the period of time when there is the greatest concern
about drug-induced:
a. Fetal hemorrhage
b. Labor
c. Fetal malformations
d. Fetal cardiac arrest
20. Match the correct drug teratogenic effect during pregnancy?
a. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors – cough
b. Isotretinoin – multiple defects of CNS, craniofacial, and cardiovascular
c. Warfarin – Downs syndrome
d. HMG CoA reductase inhibitors – decrease LDL-C
e. NSAIDs – microcephaly
21. The Beers Criteria is utilized with which population of patients?
a. Mental health
b. OB/GYN
c. Geriatrics
d. Pediatrics
22. The drug manual states that older adult patients are at increased risk for hepatotoxicity. Which
action is most important when prescribing this medication to an 80-year-old patient?
a. Ensuring that the drug is taken in the correct dose at the correct time
b. Discontinuing the order, the drug is contraindicated for this patient
c. Obtaining baseline liver function studies
d. Giving the medication intravenously to avoid first pass metabolism
23. A patient diagnosed with otitis externa and taking a fluroquinolone/glucocorticoid combination
medication asks the NP what the benefit is to taking the medications together. You reply?
a. The glucocorticoid decreases the adverse effects of fluroquinolone
b. The glucocorticoid decreases the likelihood of antibiotic resistance developing to the
fluroquinolone
c. The glucocorticoid reduces the swelling caused by the inflammation and decreases pain,
while the fluroquinolone treats the infection
d. The two medications are contraindicated for use together
1. Which instructions should be included in the plan of care for a patient who is prescribed ferrous
sulfate?
a. Iron compounds are not taken orally
b. Iron does not absorb
c. Iron should only be taken at night
d. Antacids should not be taken with iron
2. Which is the most common type of anemia?
a. Iron deficiency
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. Folic acid deficiency
d. B12 deficiency
3. Which antibiotic class disrupts folate metabolism in bacteria and is often combined with
trimethoprim?
a. Fluroquinolones
b. Cephalosporins
c. Aminoglycosides
d. Sulfonamides
4. Which of the following terms least describes the mechanism of action of metoprolol?
a. Alpha-1-antagonist effects
b. Beta-1 selective
c. Nonselective beta with alpha blocking
d. Nonselective alpha-blockers
5. Which of the following drug treatment strategies is associated with peptic ulcer disease?
a. Antibiotics (amoxicillin and clarithromycin)
b. Hormonal therapy
c. Corticosteroids
d. Opioids
6. Which of the following groups of antibiotics has a beta-lactam ring in the molecular structure?
a. Macrolides
b. Sulfonamides
c. Tetracyclines
d. Cephalosporins
e. Fluroquinolones
7. Which of the following diseases or disorders are more likely related to ACE inhibitors?
a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Pulmonary hypertension
c. Cushing’s syndrome
d. Angina
e. Chronic kidney disease (with or without diabetes)
8. Which of the following drug classes is/are used in initial hypertension management?
a. Clonidine primary
b. Beta blockers primary
c. Thiazide or calcium channel blocker primary
d. ACE-I primary
, e. ARB primary
9. Which of the following medications is a fluroquinolone antibiotic?
a. Penicillin
b. Azithromycin
c. Amikacin
d. Ciprofloxacin
10. Which of the following is most likely an intervention for otitis media?
a. Immunoglobulins
b. Aspirin
c. Corticosteroids
d. Amoxicillin
11. Which antibiotic binds to 50S subunit of the bacteria ribosome and could most likely result in the
development of pseudomembranous colitis?
a. Tetracycline
b. Vancomycin
c. Clindamycin
d. Amoxicillin
12. Which of the following drug classes should be avoided in c disease?
a. Avoid diuretics
b. Avoid antibiotics
c. Avoid proton pump inhibitors
d. Avoid NSAIDs
13. Prescriptive authority is regulated by the State Board of Nursing, Board of Medicine, or Board of
Pharmacy, depending on the state.
a. True
b. False
14. Which of the following is most true of nurse practitioner prescribers?
a. Prescriptive authority is under the full control of the Board of Nursing in all states
b. All states allow nurse practitioners to prescribe controlled substances
c. Al states allow some level of prescription writing by nurse practitioners
d. None of the choices are correct
15. Which of the following is a non-neurotoxin treatment for head lice?
a. Malathoin (Ovide)
b. Benzoyl alcohol (Ulesfia)
c. Permethrin 1% (Nix)
d. Lindane shampoo
16. Nystatin is used for a variety of conditions. Which condition is not treated with Nystatin?
a. Onychomycosis
b. Vaginal candidiasis
c. Intestinal candidiasis
d. Oral candidiasis
17. All of the following are true regarding the treatment of scabies except?
a. Lindane does not carry risk for toxicity and can be used in children more than 2 years of
age
, b. Treatment of scabies include crotaminton, malathion, and lindane
c. Lindane, though usually effective, carries a risk for toxicity and should not be used in
children
d. Permethrin 5% cream (Elimite) is the drug of choice for the treatment of scabies in
infants greater than 2 months, and approved to use in pregnant women
18. A pediatric patient prescribed ampicillin for streptococcal pharyngitis reports new onset of
pruritic, dull red, maculopapular rash on the chest and neck. Which action is most important for
the provider to take to minimize this patient’s risk for injury?
a. Prescribe an antihistamine for the itching
b. Flag all medical records with an “Allergy to Penicillin” notice
c. Prescribe azithromycin to replace ampicillin
d. Discontinue the ampicillin
19. The 4th to the 10th week of gestation is the period of time when there is the greatest concern
about drug-induced:
a. Fetal hemorrhage
b. Labor
c. Fetal malformations
d. Fetal cardiac arrest
20. Match the correct drug teratogenic effect during pregnancy?
a. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors – cough
b. Isotretinoin – multiple defects of CNS, craniofacial, and cardiovascular
c. Warfarin – Downs syndrome
d. HMG CoA reductase inhibitors – decrease LDL-C
e. NSAIDs – microcephaly
21. The Beers Criteria is utilized with which population of patients?
a. Mental health
b. OB/GYN
c. Geriatrics
d. Pediatrics
22. The drug manual states that older adult patients are at increased risk for hepatotoxicity. Which
action is most important when prescribing this medication to an 80-year-old patient?
a. Ensuring that the drug is taken in the correct dose at the correct time
b. Discontinuing the order, the drug is contraindicated for this patient
c. Obtaining baseline liver function studies
d. Giving the medication intravenously to avoid first pass metabolism
23. A patient diagnosed with otitis externa and taking a fluroquinolone/glucocorticoid combination
medication asks the NP what the benefit is to taking the medications together. You reply?
a. The glucocorticoid decreases the adverse effects of fluroquinolone
b. The glucocorticoid decreases the likelihood of antibiotic resistance developing to the
fluroquinolone
c. The glucocorticoid reduces the swelling caused by the inflammation and decreases pain,
while the fluroquinolone treats the infection
d. The two medications are contraindicated for use together
