AAPC CPC EXAMS PRACTICE B COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW
Questions with Correct Answers (Grade A+)
Question 1: While playing softball a 12-year-old boy sustains a blowout fracture. What is the
anatomical location of a blowout fracture?
A. Orbit
B. Clavicle
C. Patella
D. Femur
Answer: a. orbit A blowout fracture is a fracture of the walls or floor of the orbit. The orbit is the cavity or
socket of the skull which the eye and its appendages are situated. In the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index look
for Fracture, traumatic/orbit/floor (blowout).
Question 2: The root metr/o means:
A. Menstruation
B. Breast
C. Mammary gland
D. Uterus
Answer: D. Uterus: hint The root word metr/o or metr/i means uterus. In the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index
look for a main term that starts with metro. You will see the main term Metrorrhexis - see Rupture, uterus.
Question 3: According to the CPT® Appendix L, when performing a selective vascular catheterization,
which vessels would you pass through to place the catheter into the right middle cerebral artery?
A. Innominate, right common carotid, right exteranl carotid
B. Innominate, right subclavian & axillary
C. Left common carotid, left internal carotid
D. Innominate, the right common, and internal carotid
Answer: d. innominate, the right common, and internal carotid
Page 1
,Question 4: Which one of the following statements regarding advanced beneficiary notices (ABN) is
TRUE?
A. ABN must specify only the CPT® code that Medicare is expected to deny.
B. Generic ABN which states that a Medicare denial of payment is possible, or the internist is unaware
whether Medicare will deny payment or not is acceptable.
C. An ABN must be completed before delivery of items or services are provided.
D. An ABN must be obtained from a patient even in a medical emergency when the services to be provided
are not covered.
Answer: c. An ABN must be completed before delivery of items or services are provided An ABN must
include the service that may be denied, an estimated cost of the patient's responsibility if Medicare denies
the service and the response for the potential denial. Generic ABNs are not allowed. Signing of the ABN
cannot be obtained during a medical emergency. The patient must be stable. The ABN must be signed prior
to providing the service.
Question 5: Which service is covered by Medicare Part B?
A. Inpatient chemotherapy
B. Minor surgery performed in a physician's office
C. Routine dental care
D. Assisted living facility
Answer: b. Minor surgery performed in a physician's office Services performed by physicians are covered
by Medicare Part B. Inpatient services are covered by Part A. Medicare does not cover routine dental care.
Question 6: When coding for a patient who has had a primary malignancy of the thyroid cartilage that
was completely excised a year ago, which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A. When the cancer is surgically removed with no further treatment provided and there is no evidence of any
existing primary malignancy, code Z85.850.
B. When further treatment is provided and there is evidence of an existing metastasis, code first Z85.850 and
then C32.9.
C. Any mention of extension, invasion, or metastasis to another site is coded as a D49.1, Z85.850.
D. When the cancer is surgically removed but the patient is receiving chemotherapy treatment report Z85.850.
Answer: a. when the cancer is surgically removed with no further treatment provided and there is no
evidence of any existing primary malignancy, code Z85.850 ICD-10-CM guidelines (Section I.C.2.d.)
indicated, when the patient has excised or eradicated the malignancy and there is no further treatment
directed to that site and there is no evidence of any existing primary malignancy, a code from category Z85,
Personal history of malignant neoplasm, should be used to indicate the site of the former malignancy. Look
in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index, for History/personal (of)/malignant neoplasm (of)/thyroid. Note: If a
malignant cancer is removed but the patient is still receiving further treatment for that site, such as
chemotherapy or radiation, you report the malignant neoplasm code not the personal history code.
Question 7: In order to use the critical care codes, which statement is TRUE?
A. Critical care services can be provided in an internist's office
B. Critical care services provided for more than 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes should be billed with
99291 and modifier 52.
Page 2
, C. Time spent reviewing laboratory test results or discussing the critically ill patient's care with other medical
staff in the unit or at the nursing station on the floor cannot be included in the determination of critical care
time.
D. Critical care services are never reported with endotracheal intubation (31500)
E. Physician can provide services to another patient during the same time providing critical care services to a
critically ill patient
Answer: E. Physician can provide services to another patient during the same times providing critical care
services to a critically ill patient Critical care services can be provided at any site. If the patient is critically
ill, the services provided can be coded with critical care regardless of where the services take place. A
minimum of 30 minutes of critical care must be performed in order to report 99291. If less than 30 minutes,
select the appropriate E/M code based on the three key components. Time spent reviewing results and
discussing the critically ill patient with medical staff is included in the critical care time. Endotracheal
intubation, code 31500, can be reported with critical care services. The subsection guidelines for critical
care services in the CPT® codebook does give what services cannot be billed with critical care. A physician
providing critical care services must devote full attention to the critically ill patient and cannot provide
services to any other patient during the same period of time.
Question 8: What is the patient's right when it involves making changes in the personal medical
record?
A. Patient must work through an attorney to revise any portion of the personal medical information.
B. They should be able to obtain copies of the medical record and request corrections of errors and mistakes.
C. It is a violation of federal health care law to revise a patient medical record.
D. Revision of the patient medical record depends solely on the facility's compliance program policy.
Answer: b.. They should be able to obtain copies of the medical record and request corrections of errors and
mistakes
Question 9: Which statement regarding an ICD-10-CM coding conventions is TRUE?
A. If the same condition is described as both acute and chronic and separate subentries exist in the Alphabetic
Index at the same indentation level, code only the acute condition.
B. Sequela (Late effect) codes are reported for a current acute phase of the injury or illness
C. An ICD-10-CM code is still valid even if it has not been coded to the full number of characters required for
that code.
D. Signs and symptoms that are integral to the disease process should not be assigned as additional codes,
unless otherwise instructed.
Answer: d. signs and symptoms that are integral of the disease process should not be assigned additional
codes, unless otherwise instructed.
Question 10: Which modifier is appended to a CPT®, for which the provider had a patient sign an
Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) form because there is a possibility the service may be denied
because the patient's diagnosis might not meet medical necessity for the covered service?
A. GJ
B. GA
C. GB
D. GY
Page 3
Questions with Correct Answers (Grade A+)
Question 1: While playing softball a 12-year-old boy sustains a blowout fracture. What is the
anatomical location of a blowout fracture?
A. Orbit
B. Clavicle
C. Patella
D. Femur
Answer: a. orbit A blowout fracture is a fracture of the walls or floor of the orbit. The orbit is the cavity or
socket of the skull which the eye and its appendages are situated. In the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index look
for Fracture, traumatic/orbit/floor (blowout).
Question 2: The root metr/o means:
A. Menstruation
B. Breast
C. Mammary gland
D. Uterus
Answer: D. Uterus: hint The root word metr/o or metr/i means uterus. In the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index
look for a main term that starts with metro. You will see the main term Metrorrhexis - see Rupture, uterus.
Question 3: According to the CPT® Appendix L, when performing a selective vascular catheterization,
which vessels would you pass through to place the catheter into the right middle cerebral artery?
A. Innominate, right common carotid, right exteranl carotid
B. Innominate, right subclavian & axillary
C. Left common carotid, left internal carotid
D. Innominate, the right common, and internal carotid
Answer: d. innominate, the right common, and internal carotid
Page 1
,Question 4: Which one of the following statements regarding advanced beneficiary notices (ABN) is
TRUE?
A. ABN must specify only the CPT® code that Medicare is expected to deny.
B. Generic ABN which states that a Medicare denial of payment is possible, or the internist is unaware
whether Medicare will deny payment or not is acceptable.
C. An ABN must be completed before delivery of items or services are provided.
D. An ABN must be obtained from a patient even in a medical emergency when the services to be provided
are not covered.
Answer: c. An ABN must be completed before delivery of items or services are provided An ABN must
include the service that may be denied, an estimated cost of the patient's responsibility if Medicare denies
the service and the response for the potential denial. Generic ABNs are not allowed. Signing of the ABN
cannot be obtained during a medical emergency. The patient must be stable. The ABN must be signed prior
to providing the service.
Question 5: Which service is covered by Medicare Part B?
A. Inpatient chemotherapy
B. Minor surgery performed in a physician's office
C. Routine dental care
D. Assisted living facility
Answer: b. Minor surgery performed in a physician's office Services performed by physicians are covered
by Medicare Part B. Inpatient services are covered by Part A. Medicare does not cover routine dental care.
Question 6: When coding for a patient who has had a primary malignancy of the thyroid cartilage that
was completely excised a year ago, which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A. When the cancer is surgically removed with no further treatment provided and there is no evidence of any
existing primary malignancy, code Z85.850.
B. When further treatment is provided and there is evidence of an existing metastasis, code first Z85.850 and
then C32.9.
C. Any mention of extension, invasion, or metastasis to another site is coded as a D49.1, Z85.850.
D. When the cancer is surgically removed but the patient is receiving chemotherapy treatment report Z85.850.
Answer: a. when the cancer is surgically removed with no further treatment provided and there is no
evidence of any existing primary malignancy, code Z85.850 ICD-10-CM guidelines (Section I.C.2.d.)
indicated, when the patient has excised or eradicated the malignancy and there is no further treatment
directed to that site and there is no evidence of any existing primary malignancy, a code from category Z85,
Personal history of malignant neoplasm, should be used to indicate the site of the former malignancy. Look
in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index, for History/personal (of)/malignant neoplasm (of)/thyroid. Note: If a
malignant cancer is removed but the patient is still receiving further treatment for that site, such as
chemotherapy or radiation, you report the malignant neoplasm code not the personal history code.
Question 7: In order to use the critical care codes, which statement is TRUE?
A. Critical care services can be provided in an internist's office
B. Critical care services provided for more than 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes should be billed with
99291 and modifier 52.
Page 2
, C. Time spent reviewing laboratory test results or discussing the critically ill patient's care with other medical
staff in the unit or at the nursing station on the floor cannot be included in the determination of critical care
time.
D. Critical care services are never reported with endotracheal intubation (31500)
E. Physician can provide services to another patient during the same time providing critical care services to a
critically ill patient
Answer: E. Physician can provide services to another patient during the same times providing critical care
services to a critically ill patient Critical care services can be provided at any site. If the patient is critically
ill, the services provided can be coded with critical care regardless of where the services take place. A
minimum of 30 minutes of critical care must be performed in order to report 99291. If less than 30 minutes,
select the appropriate E/M code based on the three key components. Time spent reviewing results and
discussing the critically ill patient with medical staff is included in the critical care time. Endotracheal
intubation, code 31500, can be reported with critical care services. The subsection guidelines for critical
care services in the CPT® codebook does give what services cannot be billed with critical care. A physician
providing critical care services must devote full attention to the critically ill patient and cannot provide
services to any other patient during the same period of time.
Question 8: What is the patient's right when it involves making changes in the personal medical
record?
A. Patient must work through an attorney to revise any portion of the personal medical information.
B. They should be able to obtain copies of the medical record and request corrections of errors and mistakes.
C. It is a violation of federal health care law to revise a patient medical record.
D. Revision of the patient medical record depends solely on the facility's compliance program policy.
Answer: b.. They should be able to obtain copies of the medical record and request corrections of errors and
mistakes
Question 9: Which statement regarding an ICD-10-CM coding conventions is TRUE?
A. If the same condition is described as both acute and chronic and separate subentries exist in the Alphabetic
Index at the same indentation level, code only the acute condition.
B. Sequela (Late effect) codes are reported for a current acute phase of the injury or illness
C. An ICD-10-CM code is still valid even if it has not been coded to the full number of characters required for
that code.
D. Signs and symptoms that are integral to the disease process should not be assigned as additional codes,
unless otherwise instructed.
Answer: d. signs and symptoms that are integral of the disease process should not be assigned additional
codes, unless otherwise instructed.
Question 10: Which modifier is appended to a CPT®, for which the provider had a patient sign an
Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) form because there is a possibility the service may be denied
because the patient's diagnosis might not meet medical necessity for the covered service?
A. GJ
B. GA
C. GB
D. GY
Page 3
