NR511 ADVANCED PHYSICAL
ASSESSMENT AND DIFFERENTIAL
DIAGNOSIS FINAL EXAM PREP
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS
|GRADE A+| JUST RELEASED.
CHAMBERLAIN
1. A 24-year-old patient presents with a single, salmon-colored ‘herald patch’ on the trunk,
followed by a ‘Christmas tree’ distribution of smaller maculopapular lesions. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Tinea Corporis
B. Secondary Syphilis
C. Psoriasis Vulgaris
D. Pityriasis Rosea
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Pityriasis Rosea characteristically begins with a herald patch
followed by a generalized rash in a Christmas tree pattern along skin cleavage lines.
2. When evaluating a patient for Acute Rhinosinusitis, which clinical finding is the strongest
indicator of a bacterial rather than viral etiology?
A. Double worsening (worsening after initial improvement)
,B. Symptoms lasting less than 7 days
C. Clear nasal discharge for 3 days
D. General malaise and mild headache
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Double sickening or double worsening is a classic sign of
secondary bacterial infection following a viral upper respiratory infection.
3. A patient presents with a ‘pearly’ skin lesion with telangiectasia and a central ulceration on
his nose. Which condition should the clinician suspect?
A. Squamous Cell Carcinoma
B. Malignant Melanoma
C. Actinic Keratosis
D. Basal Cell Carcinoma
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Basal Cell Carcinoma is typically described as a pearly or waxy
papule with prominent telangiectasias and sometimes central crusting.
4. According to the GINA guidelines, what is the preferred first-step treatment for a patient
with intermittent asthma symptoms?
A. Low-dose ICS-formoterol as needed
B. Short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) alone
, C. Daily medium-dose ICS
D. Long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) alone
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Recent GINA guidelines recommend low-dose ICS-formoterol as
the preferred reliever for all steps to reduce the risk of exacerbations, rather than SABA
alone.
5. Which of the following physical exam maneuvers is most sensitive for detecting an Anterior
Cruciate Ligament (ACL) tear?
A. McMurray Test
B. Valgus Stress Test
C. Lachman Test
D. Posterior Drawer Test
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The Lachman test is considered more sensitive and specific than
the Anterior Drawer test for diagnosing ACL deficiency.
6. A 45-year-old male presents with severe pain, redness, and swelling of the first
metatarsophalangeal joint. Microscopy reveals negatively birefringent needle-shaped
crystals. What is the diagnosis?
A. Pseudogout
ASSESSMENT AND DIFFERENTIAL
DIAGNOSIS FINAL EXAM PREP
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS
|GRADE A+| JUST RELEASED.
CHAMBERLAIN
1. A 24-year-old patient presents with a single, salmon-colored ‘herald patch’ on the trunk,
followed by a ‘Christmas tree’ distribution of smaller maculopapular lesions. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Tinea Corporis
B. Secondary Syphilis
C. Psoriasis Vulgaris
D. Pityriasis Rosea
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Pityriasis Rosea characteristically begins with a herald patch
followed by a generalized rash in a Christmas tree pattern along skin cleavage lines.
2. When evaluating a patient for Acute Rhinosinusitis, which clinical finding is the strongest
indicator of a bacterial rather than viral etiology?
A. Double worsening (worsening after initial improvement)
,B. Symptoms lasting less than 7 days
C. Clear nasal discharge for 3 days
D. General malaise and mild headache
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Double sickening or double worsening is a classic sign of
secondary bacterial infection following a viral upper respiratory infection.
3. A patient presents with a ‘pearly’ skin lesion with telangiectasia and a central ulceration on
his nose. Which condition should the clinician suspect?
A. Squamous Cell Carcinoma
B. Malignant Melanoma
C. Actinic Keratosis
D. Basal Cell Carcinoma
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Basal Cell Carcinoma is typically described as a pearly or waxy
papule with prominent telangiectasias and sometimes central crusting.
4. According to the GINA guidelines, what is the preferred first-step treatment for a patient
with intermittent asthma symptoms?
A. Low-dose ICS-formoterol as needed
B. Short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) alone
, C. Daily medium-dose ICS
D. Long-acting beta-agonist (LABA) alone
Answer: A
Conceptual Explanation: Recent GINA guidelines recommend low-dose ICS-formoterol as
the preferred reliever for all steps to reduce the risk of exacerbations, rather than SABA
alone.
5. Which of the following physical exam maneuvers is most sensitive for detecting an Anterior
Cruciate Ligament (ACL) tear?
A. McMurray Test
B. Valgus Stress Test
C. Lachman Test
D. Posterior Drawer Test
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The Lachman test is considered more sensitive and specific than
the Anterior Drawer test for diagnosing ACL deficiency.
6. A 45-year-old male presents with severe pain, redness, and swelling of the first
metatarsophalangeal joint. Microscopy reveals negatively birefringent needle-shaped
crystals. What is the diagnosis?
A. Pseudogout
