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NR511 DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS & PRIMARY CARE PRACTICUM EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS |GRADE A+| JUST RELEASED. CHAMBERLAIN

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NR511 DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS & PRIMARY CARE PRACTICUM EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS |GRADE A+| JUST RELEASED. CHAMBERLAIN

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NR511 DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS &
PRIMARY CARE PRACTICUM EXAM
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS
|GRADE A+| JUST RELEASED.
CHAMBERLAIN


1. A 45-year-old male presents with a sore throat, fever of 101.5F, and lack of cough. On

examination, he has tonsillar exudates and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy.

According to the modified Centor criteria, what is the most appropriate next step?

A. Prescribe amoxicillin immediately without testing


B. Order a chest X-ray to rule out secondary infection


C. Reassure the patient it is likely viral and provide supportive care


D. Perform a Rapid Antigen Detection Test (RADT)


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: The patient has a Centor score of 4 (fever, no cough, exudates,

lymphadenopathy). In adults, clinical scoring helps identify who should be tested. Current

guidelines recommend confirming the diagnosis of Group A Strep with RADT or culture

before starting antibiotics.

,2. Which of the following physical exam findings is most suggestive of acute angle-closure

glaucoma?

A. Increased cup-to-disk ratio without pain


B. Profuse purulent discharge and crusting


C. Yellowish deposits (drusen) on the retina


D. A cloudy cornea with a fixed, mid-dilated pupil


Answer: D


Conceptual Explanation: Acute angle-closure glaucoma is a medical emergency

characterized by sudden eye pain, a cloudy cornea, and a mid-dilated non-reactive pupil.

Drusen are seen in macular degeneration, and cup-to-disk changes occur in chronic

glaucoma.


3. A 68-year-old female smoker presents with a chronic cough and progressive dyspnea. Her

spirometry shows an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.62. How should this result be interpreted?

A. Restrictive lung disease


B. Obstructive lung disease (COPD)


C. Normal lung function for her age


D. Reversible airway obstruction


Answer: B

, Conceptual Explanation: An FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.70 post-bronchodilator

confirms the presence of persistent airflow limitation, which is diagnostic of COPD

according to GOLD guidelines.


4. When evaluating a patient for secondary hypertension, which of the following findings

would most likely suggest renal artery stenosis?

A. An abdominal bruit heard in the epigastric region


B. Low serum creatinine levels


C. Bilateral pitting edema in the lower extremities


D. A significant drop in blood pressure when standing


Answer: A


Conceptual Explanation: The presence of a systolic-diastolic bruit in the epigastric or

flank area is highly specific for renal artery stenosis, a common cause of secondary

hypertension.


5. A 30-year-old patient presents with a ‘herald patch’ on the trunk, followed by a ‘Christmas

tree’ distribution of smaller maculopapular lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Tinea corporis


B. Secondary syphilis


C. Pityriasis rosea


D. Guttate psoriasis

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