NR667 CEA Final Exam Study Guide | Complete
Exam with Actual Questions, Verified Correct
Answers and Detailed Rationales | Latest Update –
2026/2027 | Already Graded A+
Exam Overview: This practice test covers the NR667 CEA (Clinical Evaluation
Assessment) Final Exam for FNP students at Chamberlain University. The content
spans advanced health assessment, diagnostic reasoning, differential diagnosis,
pharmacology, and management across the lifespan. Answers and detailed
rationales are provided for each question.
Question 1
Your 18-year-old patient has recently been diagnosed with streptococcal infection
and has been successfully treated with an appropriate antimicrobial agent. They
have no other noteworthy health history, chronic illness or medications on record.
They are complaining today of hematuria, RBC cast on urinalysis with microscopy
have been identified during this visit. Based on this finding you can make the
diagnosis of which of the following?
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Urethritis
D. Glomerulonephritis
Answer: D
Rationale: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is a classic complication that
occurs 1-2 weeks after streptococcal infection. The presence of hematuria and
RBC casts on urinalysis is highly specific for glomerular inflammation. This
condition results from immune complex deposition in the glomeruli. Pyelonephritis
would present with fever, flank pain, and WBC casts. Diabetes mellitus would not
cause RBC casts. Urethritis typically presents with dysuria and discharge without
RBC casts.
Source: NR667 CEA Final Exam content; nephrology literature.
pg. 1
,Question 2
As a prudent nurse practitioner, the diabetic, hypertensive patients you are seeing
should be evaluated for early evidence of renal damage from both diabetes and
hypertension. Which of the following assessment tools should the nurse
practitioner order first for evaluation of early renal dysfunction secondary to
diabetes or hypertension?
A. Pap smear every 3 years
B. Prostate specific antigen
C. Urinalysis with micro and micro albumin
D. Colonoscopy every 10 years
Answer: C
Rationale: Urinalysis with microscopy and microalbuminuria testing is the gold
standard for early detection of diabetic and hypertensive nephropathy.
Microalbuminuria (30-300 mg/day) is the earliest clinical marker of glomerular
damage in diabetes and hypertension. Pap smears, PSA, and colonoscopies are
screening tests for other conditions, not renal function.
Source: NR667 CEA Final Exam content; nephrology guidelines.
Question 3
Your patient presents with a new onset rapid heart rate that is irregularly irregular,
heart rate 100, BP 120/74, respiration 16 non-labored and an SpO2 is 99%. They
state this has been going on for a week or so intermittently, but for the past four
days straight it hasn't stopped. Your first priority intervention for this patient is to
do which of the following?
A. Ask about their family cardiac history
B. Notify EMS to initiate transport for emergency room evaluation
C. Maintain rate control and anticoagulation prior to rhythm conversion
D. Treat with vagal maneuvers for suspected super ventricular tachycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: The irregularly irregular rhythm is characteristic of atrial fibrillation.
For AFib lasting longer than 48 hours, the priority is rate control and
anticoagulation before any rhythm conversion attempt due to the risk of
thromboembolism (stroke). Vagal maneuvers are for SVT, not AFib. Immediate
pg. 2
,EMS transport is not indicated for a stable patient.
Source: NR667 CEA Final Exam content; ACC/AHA atrial fibrillation guidelines.
Question 4
As a prudent nurse practitioner, you know that a 28-year-old male patient with
HIV would be considered well managed when they have which of the following in
addition to having undetectable or very low viral copies?
A. CD4 count of 50
B. CD4 count of 200
C. CD4 count of 500
D. Viral load of 10,000 copies/mL
Answer: C
Rationale: The goal of HIV treatment is viral suppression (undetectable viral load)
and immune reconstitution (CD4 count >500 cells/mm³). A CD4 count of 500
indicates a healthy immune system. CD4 counts of 50 and 200 indicate severe
immunosuppression (AIDS-defining conditions). A viral load of 10,000 copies/mL
indicates treatment failure.
Source: NR667 CEA Final Exam content; HIV/AIDS management guidelines.
Question 5
Your patient has expressed concern about a skin lesion which you identify as a
darkened, round, and raised lesion. This benign lesion that appears like "stuck on"
to the skin. Which of the following lesions best fits this description?
A. Seborrheic keratosis
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Actinic keratosis
D. Verruca vulgaris
Answer: A
Rationale: Seborrheic keratosis is a benign skin growth that appears "stuck on" to
the skin, often with a waxy, scaly, or crumbly texture. It is commonly dark, round,
and raised. Actinic keratosis is a precancerous lesion caused by UV exposure.
Verruca vulgaris is a wart. Glomerulonephritis is a kidney condition, not a skin
lesion.
pg. 3
, Source: NR667 CEA Final Exam content; dermatology literature.
Question 6
You are treating a patient who has stopped taking their diuretic regimen against
medical advice while they were on vacation since it made them urinate too
frequently for their plans. Now they are 21 pounds heavier than their baseline
weight, have respiratory crackles in bilateral bases, and have severe generalized
lower extremity and truncal edema extending to the sacrum and abdomen. On your
documentation, this is referred to as which of the following conditions?
A. Eclampsia
B. Scleroderma
C. Anasarca
D. Gout
Answer: C
Rationale: Anasarca is severe, generalized edema affecting the entire body,
including the subcutaneous tissue, abdomen, and extremities. It results from fluid
overload due to conditions such as heart failure, renal failure, or cirrhosis. The
patient's rapid weight gain (21 pounds), crackles, and generalized edema are classic
signs of anasarca from acute decompensated heart failure after diuretic cessation.
Eclampsia is pregnancy-related. Scleroderma is a connective tissue disease. Gout is
a joint condition.
Source: NR667 CEA Final Exam content; cardiology and nephrology literature.
Question 7
While evaluating a patient in your clinic for a routine health visit, you auscultate
crackles in the posterior left lower lobe, have the patient cough, with follow-up
auscultation revealing clear breath sounds. Which one of the following would you
suspect?
A. Asthma
B. Psoriasis
C. Orthopnea
D. Atelectasis
Answer: D
pg. 4
Exam with Actual Questions, Verified Correct
Answers and Detailed Rationales | Latest Update –
2026/2027 | Already Graded A+
Exam Overview: This practice test covers the NR667 CEA (Clinical Evaluation
Assessment) Final Exam for FNP students at Chamberlain University. The content
spans advanced health assessment, diagnostic reasoning, differential diagnosis,
pharmacology, and management across the lifespan. Answers and detailed
rationales are provided for each question.
Question 1
Your 18-year-old patient has recently been diagnosed with streptococcal infection
and has been successfully treated with an appropriate antimicrobial agent. They
have no other noteworthy health history, chronic illness or medications on record.
They are complaining today of hematuria, RBC cast on urinalysis with microscopy
have been identified during this visit. Based on this finding you can make the
diagnosis of which of the following?
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Urethritis
D. Glomerulonephritis
Answer: D
Rationale: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is a classic complication that
occurs 1-2 weeks after streptococcal infection. The presence of hematuria and
RBC casts on urinalysis is highly specific for glomerular inflammation. This
condition results from immune complex deposition in the glomeruli. Pyelonephritis
would present with fever, flank pain, and WBC casts. Diabetes mellitus would not
cause RBC casts. Urethritis typically presents with dysuria and discharge without
RBC casts.
Source: NR667 CEA Final Exam content; nephrology literature.
pg. 1
,Question 2
As a prudent nurse practitioner, the diabetic, hypertensive patients you are seeing
should be evaluated for early evidence of renal damage from both diabetes and
hypertension. Which of the following assessment tools should the nurse
practitioner order first for evaluation of early renal dysfunction secondary to
diabetes or hypertension?
A. Pap smear every 3 years
B. Prostate specific antigen
C. Urinalysis with micro and micro albumin
D. Colonoscopy every 10 years
Answer: C
Rationale: Urinalysis with microscopy and microalbuminuria testing is the gold
standard for early detection of diabetic and hypertensive nephropathy.
Microalbuminuria (30-300 mg/day) is the earliest clinical marker of glomerular
damage in diabetes and hypertension. Pap smears, PSA, and colonoscopies are
screening tests for other conditions, not renal function.
Source: NR667 CEA Final Exam content; nephrology guidelines.
Question 3
Your patient presents with a new onset rapid heart rate that is irregularly irregular,
heart rate 100, BP 120/74, respiration 16 non-labored and an SpO2 is 99%. They
state this has been going on for a week or so intermittently, but for the past four
days straight it hasn't stopped. Your first priority intervention for this patient is to
do which of the following?
A. Ask about their family cardiac history
B. Notify EMS to initiate transport for emergency room evaluation
C. Maintain rate control and anticoagulation prior to rhythm conversion
D. Treat with vagal maneuvers for suspected super ventricular tachycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: The irregularly irregular rhythm is characteristic of atrial fibrillation.
For AFib lasting longer than 48 hours, the priority is rate control and
anticoagulation before any rhythm conversion attempt due to the risk of
thromboembolism (stroke). Vagal maneuvers are for SVT, not AFib. Immediate
pg. 2
,EMS transport is not indicated for a stable patient.
Source: NR667 CEA Final Exam content; ACC/AHA atrial fibrillation guidelines.
Question 4
As a prudent nurse practitioner, you know that a 28-year-old male patient with
HIV would be considered well managed when they have which of the following in
addition to having undetectable or very low viral copies?
A. CD4 count of 50
B. CD4 count of 200
C. CD4 count of 500
D. Viral load of 10,000 copies/mL
Answer: C
Rationale: The goal of HIV treatment is viral suppression (undetectable viral load)
and immune reconstitution (CD4 count >500 cells/mm³). A CD4 count of 500
indicates a healthy immune system. CD4 counts of 50 and 200 indicate severe
immunosuppression (AIDS-defining conditions). A viral load of 10,000 copies/mL
indicates treatment failure.
Source: NR667 CEA Final Exam content; HIV/AIDS management guidelines.
Question 5
Your patient has expressed concern about a skin lesion which you identify as a
darkened, round, and raised lesion. This benign lesion that appears like "stuck on"
to the skin. Which of the following lesions best fits this description?
A. Seborrheic keratosis
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Actinic keratosis
D. Verruca vulgaris
Answer: A
Rationale: Seborrheic keratosis is a benign skin growth that appears "stuck on" to
the skin, often with a waxy, scaly, or crumbly texture. It is commonly dark, round,
and raised. Actinic keratosis is a precancerous lesion caused by UV exposure.
Verruca vulgaris is a wart. Glomerulonephritis is a kidney condition, not a skin
lesion.
pg. 3
, Source: NR667 CEA Final Exam content; dermatology literature.
Question 6
You are treating a patient who has stopped taking their diuretic regimen against
medical advice while they were on vacation since it made them urinate too
frequently for their plans. Now they are 21 pounds heavier than their baseline
weight, have respiratory crackles in bilateral bases, and have severe generalized
lower extremity and truncal edema extending to the sacrum and abdomen. On your
documentation, this is referred to as which of the following conditions?
A. Eclampsia
B. Scleroderma
C. Anasarca
D. Gout
Answer: C
Rationale: Anasarca is severe, generalized edema affecting the entire body,
including the subcutaneous tissue, abdomen, and extremities. It results from fluid
overload due to conditions such as heart failure, renal failure, or cirrhosis. The
patient's rapid weight gain (21 pounds), crackles, and generalized edema are classic
signs of anasarca from acute decompensated heart failure after diuretic cessation.
Eclampsia is pregnancy-related. Scleroderma is a connective tissue disease. Gout is
a joint condition.
Source: NR667 CEA Final Exam content; cardiology and nephrology literature.
Question 7
While evaluating a patient in your clinic for a routine health visit, you auscultate
crackles in the posterior left lower lobe, have the patient cough, with follow-up
auscultation revealing clear breath sounds. Which one of the following would you
suspect?
A. Asthma
B. Psoriasis
C. Orthopnea
D. Atelectasis
Answer: D
pg. 4
