NUR 2474 PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 1: COMPREHENSIVE STUDY GUIDE WITH 100 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWER RATIONALES || GRADED A+ GUARANTEED PASS || NEWEST

NUR 2474 PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 1:
COMPREHENSIVE STUDY GUIDE WITH
100 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWER RATIONALES || GRADED A+
GUARANTEED PASS || NEWEST
Question 1: Pharmacokinetics Definition
The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion is known as:

• A. Pharmacotherapeutics
• B. Pharmacodynamics
• C. Pharmacokinetics
• D. Pharmacy

Answer: C
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics = ADME (absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion).




Question 2: First-Pass Effect
What is the first-pass effect?

• A. Drug absorption in kidneys
• B. Drug metabolism in liver before reaching systemic circulation
• C. Drug excretion in urine
• D. Drug binding to proteins

Answer: B
Rationale: Oral drugs are metabolized by the liver before entering circulation, reducing
bioavailability.




Question 3: Agonist vs. Antagonist
A drug that binds to a receptor and prevents a biological response is known as a(n):

• A. Agonist

, • B. Partial agonist
• C. Antagonist
• D. Synergist

Answer: C
Rationale: Antagonists have affinity for a receptor but lack intrinsic activity, meaning
they block other substances from binding.




Question 4: Half-Life Definition
What is the term for the time required for the amount of drug in the body to
decrease by 50%?

• A. Therapeutic index
• B. Peak level
• C. Duration of action
• D. Half-life

Answer: D
Rationale: The half-life of a drug determines the dosing interval needed to maintain
therapeutic levels.




Question 5: Therapeutic Window
Therapeutic window is defined as:

• A. The time it takes for a drug to reach peak effect
• B. The level of drug between minimal effective concentration and minimal
toxic concentration
• C. The time required for complete drug elimination
• D. The maximum dose tolerated by a patient

Answer: B
Rationale: The therapeutic window represents the range where the drug is effective
without causing toxicity.




Question 6: Cholinergic Crisis Treatment
How do you treat cholinergic crisis?

, • A. Naloxone
• B. Atropine
• C. Flumazenil
• D. Protamine sulfate

Answer: B
Rationale: Atropine is the antidote for cholinergic crisis.




Question 7: Benzodiazepine Antidote
What is the reversal agent for benzodiazepines?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Atropine
• C. Flumazenil
• D. Vitamin K

Answer: C
Rationale: Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist used to reverse
sedation and other effects of benzodiazepines.




Question 8: Status Epilepticus Treatment
Drug of choice for treating status epilepticus:

• A. Phenytoin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Carbamazepine
• D. Valproic acid

Answer: B
Rationale: Diazepam (a benzodiazepine) is the first-line medication used to stop a
seizure.




Question 9: Levodopa/Carbidopa Classification
Levodopa/Carbidopa is classified as what type of agent?

• A. Cholinergic agent

, • B. Dopaminergic agent
• C. Anticholinergic agent
• D. Cholinesterase inhibitor

Answer: B
Rationale: Levodopa/Carbidopa is a dopaminergic agent used to treat Parkinson's
disease.




Question 10: Donepezil Side Effects
A patient taking donepezil for Alzheimer's disease should be monitored for which
common side effects?

• A. Hypertension and tachycardia
• B. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
• C. Weight gain and sedation
• D. Constipation and urinary retention

Answer: B
Rationale: Cholinesterase inhibitors like donepezil commonly cause GI side effects
including nausea/vomiting and diarrhea.




Question 11: Interferon Beta Considerations
A patient receiving interferon beta therapy for multiple sclerosis should be taught to
expect:

• A. Immediate improvement in symptoms
• B. Flu-like symptoms after injection
• C. No need for site rotation
• D. Increased energy levels

Answer: B
Rationale: Interferon beta may cause flu-like symptoms. Patients should rotate
injection sites and allow 48 hours between injections.