Maternal-Newborn Nursing Final Exam —
Exam Questions with Correct Answers
(VerifiedAnswers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A
Instant Download PDF
1. A pregnant client at 10 weeks' gestation reports severe
nausea and vomiting with inability to keep fluids down. Which
finding is most concerning for hyperemesis gravidarum?
A. Mild morning nausea
B. Increased appetite
C. Weight loss and ketonuria
D. Occasional constipation
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by
persistent, severe nausea and vomiting that can lead to
dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities, weight loss, and
ketonuria. Ketonuria indicates that the body is metabolizing fat
because adequate carbohydrate intake is not occurring. Mild
nausea and vomiting are common during early pregnancy and
generally do not cause significant dehydration or weight loss.
2. Which finding is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
,A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive pregnancy test
C. Breast tenderness
D. Fetal visualization on ultrasound
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are findings that can be
attributed only to the presence of a fetus. Visualization of the
fetus by ultrasound is a positive sign. Amenorrhea, breast
tenderness, and a positive pregnancy test are presumptive or
probable findings because they can occur for reasons other than
pregnancy.
3. A client at 34 weeks' gestation has a blood pressure of
168/112 mm Hg, severe headache, and blurred vision. What is
the nurse's priority action?
A. Encourage ambulation
B. Place the client in a warm bath
C. Provide a high-sodium snack
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and institute
seizure precautions
Rationale: Severe hypertension accompanied by headache and
visual disturbances suggests severe preeclampsia and places the
client at significant risk for cerebral complications and seizures.
Immediate intervention is required. Seizure precautions, close
monitoring, and prescribed medications such as magnesium
,sulfate may be necessary. Ambulation and increased sodium
intake are inappropriate.
4. Which medication is commonly administered to prevent
and treat seizures associated with severe preeclampsia?
A. Oxytocin
B. Terbutaline
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Methylergonovine
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the medication of choice for
seizure prophylaxis and treatment in clients with severe
preeclampsia and eclampsia. It decreases neuromuscular
transmission and reduces seizure activity. Oxytocin promotes
uterine contractions, terbutaline is a tocolytic, and
methylergonovine promotes uterine contraction after birth.
5. A nurse is assessing a client receiving magnesium sulfate.
Which finding requires immediate attention?
A. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
B. Respiratory rate of 18/min
C. Patellar reflexes present
D. Respiratory rate of 10/min
, Rationale: Respiratory depression is a significant manifestation
of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate depresses
neuromuscular transmission, and excessive levels can cause
diminished reflexes, respiratory depression, cardiac dysfunction,
and eventually cardiac arrest. A respiratory rate of 10/min
requires immediate assessment and intervention. Calcium
gluconate is the antidote for significant magnesium toxicity.
6. A pregnant client asks why folic acid is recommended
before conception and during early pregnancy. What is the
best response?
A. It prevents gestational diabetes.
B. It prevents postpartum hemorrhage.
C. It reduces the risk of neural tube defects.
D. It prevents pregnancy-induced hypertension.
Rationale: Adequate folic acid intake before conception and
during early pregnancy significantly reduces the risk of fetal
neural tube defects, including spina bifida and anencephaly.
Neural tube development occurs very early in pregnancy, often
before pregnancy is recognized, which is why folic acid
supplementation is recommended before conception.
Exam Questions with Correct Answers
(VerifiedAnswers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A
Instant Download PDF
1. A pregnant client at 10 weeks' gestation reports severe
nausea and vomiting with inability to keep fluids down. Which
finding is most concerning for hyperemesis gravidarum?
A. Mild morning nausea
B. Increased appetite
C. Weight loss and ketonuria
D. Occasional constipation
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by
persistent, severe nausea and vomiting that can lead to
dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities, weight loss, and
ketonuria. Ketonuria indicates that the body is metabolizing fat
because adequate carbohydrate intake is not occurring. Mild
nausea and vomiting are common during early pregnancy and
generally do not cause significant dehydration or weight loss.
2. Which finding is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
,A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive pregnancy test
C. Breast tenderness
D. Fetal visualization on ultrasound
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are findings that can be
attributed only to the presence of a fetus. Visualization of the
fetus by ultrasound is a positive sign. Amenorrhea, breast
tenderness, and a positive pregnancy test are presumptive or
probable findings because they can occur for reasons other than
pregnancy.
3. A client at 34 weeks' gestation has a blood pressure of
168/112 mm Hg, severe headache, and blurred vision. What is
the nurse's priority action?
A. Encourage ambulation
B. Place the client in a warm bath
C. Provide a high-sodium snack
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and institute
seizure precautions
Rationale: Severe hypertension accompanied by headache and
visual disturbances suggests severe preeclampsia and places the
client at significant risk for cerebral complications and seizures.
Immediate intervention is required. Seizure precautions, close
monitoring, and prescribed medications such as magnesium
,sulfate may be necessary. Ambulation and increased sodium
intake are inappropriate.
4. Which medication is commonly administered to prevent
and treat seizures associated with severe preeclampsia?
A. Oxytocin
B. Terbutaline
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Methylergonovine
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the medication of choice for
seizure prophylaxis and treatment in clients with severe
preeclampsia and eclampsia. It decreases neuromuscular
transmission and reduces seizure activity. Oxytocin promotes
uterine contractions, terbutaline is a tocolytic, and
methylergonovine promotes uterine contraction after birth.
5. A nurse is assessing a client receiving magnesium sulfate.
Which finding requires immediate attention?
A. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
B. Respiratory rate of 18/min
C. Patellar reflexes present
D. Respiratory rate of 10/min
, Rationale: Respiratory depression is a significant manifestation
of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate depresses
neuromuscular transmission, and excessive levels can cause
diminished reflexes, respiratory depression, cardiac dysfunction,
and eventually cardiac arrest. A respiratory rate of 10/min
requires immediate assessment and intervention. Calcium
gluconate is the antidote for significant magnesium toxicity.
6. A pregnant client asks why folic acid is recommended
before conception and during early pregnancy. What is the
best response?
A. It prevents gestational diabetes.
B. It prevents postpartum hemorrhage.
C. It reduces the risk of neural tube defects.
D. It prevents pregnancy-induced hypertension.
Rationale: Adequate folic acid intake before conception and
during early pregnancy significantly reduces the risk of fetal
neural tube defects, including spina bifida and anencephaly.
Neural tube development occurs very early in pregnancy, often
before pregnancy is recognized, which is why folic acid
supplementation is recommended before conception.
