ATI RN Medical-Surgical (Adult Health) NGN Exam
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Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales | A+ Study
Guide| With pictures and screenshots| Brand new!!
2026/2027 Frequently Most Tested Questions and 100%
Accurate From Past papers | Graded A+ , Reviewed and
Updated | 100% Guarantee Pass | Latest Exam and Newest
Version!!!
A nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client who has cardiovascular disease. Which of the
following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
a. "I will limit my portions of meat to 8 ounces."
b. "I will increase my intake of canned vegetables."
c. "I will use canola oil when making salad dressing."
d. "I will drink whole milk with my cereal."
✔️ Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Canola oil is a heart-healthy monounsaturated fat that can help lower LDL cholesterol when used in
place of saturated or trans fats. Option A is incorrect because the recommended meat portion for a
heart-healthy diet is typically 3-4 ounces, not 8 ounces. Option B is incorrect because canned
vegetables often contain high amounts of sodium, which can exacerbate hypertension and fluid
retention. Option D is incorrect because whole milk contains saturated fat, which is associated with
increased cardiovascular risk; low-fat or skim milk is preferred. The client's statement demonstrates
understanding of the importance of using healthier fat sources in their diet. The nurse should also
reinforce teaching about limiting sodium intake, increasing fiber consumption, and choosing lean
protein sources.
,A nurse is caring for a client who has COPD. Which of the following findings requires immediate follow-
up? (Select all that apply from assessment data)
Neurological: Client is oriented to person, place, and time. Client is restless. Pupils are reactive to light.
Able to move all extremities.
Pulmonary: Client is tachypneic, cough is productive, and mucous is yellow in color. Wheezes and
crackles heard upon auscultation.
Cardiovascular: Heart rate 110/min, blood pressure 148/90 mmHg.
Integumentary: Skin is warm and dry.
✔️ Correct Answer: Restlessness, Tachypnea, Wheezes and crackles, Heart rate 110/min, Blood pressure
148/90 mmHg
Rationale:
Restlessness is an early sign of hypoxia and indicates deteriorating respiratory status requiring
immediate intervention. Tachypnea (elevated respiratory rate) suggests the client is working harder to
breathe and may be experiencing respiratory distress. Wheezes and crackles indicate airway obstruction
and fluid in the airways, which are concerning findings in a COPD client. Tachycardia (heart rate
110/min) and hypertension (blood pressure 148/90 mmHg) may indicate hypoxia, respiratory distress,
or increased work of breathing. The client's orientation to person, place, and time is a positive finding,
as is reactivity of pupils and ability to move all extremities. Warm, dry skin is expected. The nurse should
prioritize interventions to improve oxygenation, including administering supplemental oxygen (with
caution in COPD clients), positioning for optimal breathing, and notifying the healthcare provider if the
client's condition does not improve.
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure. The client is at risk for developing which of the
following complications? (Select all that apply)
a. Dysrhythmias
b. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Acute kidney injury
d. Fluid volume deficit
✔️ Correct Answer: A and C
Rationale:
Clients with heart failure are at risk for developing dysrhythmias (Option A) due to electrolyte
imbalances, myocardial ischemia, and the effects of medications such as digoxin. Acute kidney injury
(Option C) can develop as a result of decreased cardiac output and reduced renal perfusion, leading to
prerenal azotemia. Option B (Respiratory alkalosis) is not typically associated with heart failure; clients
with heart failure are more likely to develop respiratory acidosis due to pulmonary congestion and
,impaired gas exchange. Option D (Fluid volume deficit) is incorrect because heart failure is characterized
by fluid volume excess, not deficit, resulting from the heart's inability to pump effectively. The nurse
should monitor the client for signs of fluid overload, electrolyte imbalances, and decreased urine
output, and implement interventions to optimize cardiac function and prevent complications.
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has diabetes mellitus about the self-administration of
insulin. The client has prescriptions for regular and NPH insulins. Which of the following statements by
the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
a. "I will draw up the regular insulin into the syringe first."
b. "I will shake the NPH vial vigorously before drawing up the insulin."
c. "I will store prefilled syringes in the refrigerator with the needle pointed downward."
d. "I will insert the needle at a 15-degree angle."
✔️ Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
When mixing regular and NPH insulin, the regular (clear) insulin should be drawn up first to prevent
contamination of the regular insulin vial with NPH (cloudy) insulin. Option B is incorrect because NPH
insulin should be gently rolled between the palms to resuspend it, not shaken vigorously, which can
cause foaming and inaccurate dosing. Option C is incorrect because prefilled syringes should be stored
with the needle pointed upward to prevent insulin from clogging the needle. Option D is incorrect
because subcutaneous insulin injections are typically administered at a 45-90 degree angle, depending
on the client's body mass and needle length. The client's statement demonstrates understanding of the
correct technique for mixing insulins, which is essential for accurate dosing and glycemic control.
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning care for a client who has dementia and a history of
wandering. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to implement?
a. Move client to a double room
b. Use chemical restraints at bedtime
c. Use a bed alarm
d. Encourage participation in activities that provide excessive stimulation
✔️ Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
A bed alarm is an appropriate intervention for a client with dementia who has a history of wandering.
The alarm alerts staff when the client attempts to get out of bed, allowing for timely intervention to
prevent falls or elopement. Option A is incorrect because moving the client to a double room could
increase confusion and agitation; a private room with a low-stimulation environment is preferred.
,Option B is incorrect because chemical restraints should be avoided whenever possible and should
never be used for convenience or as a substitute for appropriate care; they can cause adverse effects
and are regulated by federal guidelines. Option D is incorrect because excessive stimulation can
increase confusion and agitation in clients with dementia; activities should be structured and
appropriate to the client's cognitive level. Non-pharmacological interventions such as redirecting,
maintaining a consistent routine, and providing meaningful activities are preferred strategies for
managing wandering behavior.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving TPN. For each potential nursing intervention, click to specify if the
potential intervention is anticipated, nonessential, or contraindicated for the client.
Exhibit 1 - Medical History: Dehydration, Hyperlipidemia, Hypertension, Coronary artery disease (CAD)
Exhibit 2 - Diagnostic Results: WBC count 14,000/mm³, Hgb 14 g/dL, Hct 40%, Sodium 132 mEq/L,
Potassium 6.2 mEq/L, Calcium 10 mg/dL, BUN 20 mg/dL, Albumin 2.8 g/dL, Fasting blood glucose 140
mg/dL
Interventions to evaluate:
Monitor blood glucose every 4-6 hours
Restrict fluid intake to 1,000 mL/day
Check for allergies to components of TPN
Monitor for signs of infection at the IV site
Administer insulin as prescribed for hyperglycemia
✔️ Correct Answer:
Monitor blood glucose every 4-6 hours: ANTICIPATED (TPN can cause hyperglycemia; glucose should
be monitored regularly)
Restrict fluid intake to 1,000 mL/day: CONTRAINDICATED (Client has dehydration; adequate hydration is
needed)
Check for allergies to components of TPN: ANTICIPATED (Allergy assessment should be completed
before initiation)
Monitor for signs of infection at the IV site: ANTICIPATED (TPN is hypertonic and increases infection risk;
site should be monitored)
Administer insulin as prescribed for hyperglycemia: ANTICIPATED (Fasting blood glucose is elevated at
140 mg/dL; insulin may be needed)
Rationale:
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is a hypertonic solution that can cause hyperglycemia, so blood glucose
monitoring is essential (anticipated). The client's elevated glucose of 140 mg/dL and history of CAD
suggest that insulin may be needed. The client is dehydrated, so restricting fluids is contraindicated.
Allergy assessment is standard before initiating TPN. Infection monitoring is critical because TPN
Updated Edition | Exam-Style Questions with Expert-
Verified Answers & Detailed Rationales | A+ Study
Guide| With pictures and screenshots| Brand new!!
2026/2027 Frequently Most Tested Questions and 100%
Accurate From Past papers | Graded A+ , Reviewed and
Updated | 100% Guarantee Pass | Latest Exam and Newest
Version!!!
A nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client who has cardiovascular disease. Which of the
following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
a. "I will limit my portions of meat to 8 ounces."
b. "I will increase my intake of canned vegetables."
c. "I will use canola oil when making salad dressing."
d. "I will drink whole milk with my cereal."
✔️ Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Canola oil is a heart-healthy monounsaturated fat that can help lower LDL cholesterol when used in
place of saturated or trans fats. Option A is incorrect because the recommended meat portion for a
heart-healthy diet is typically 3-4 ounces, not 8 ounces. Option B is incorrect because canned
vegetables often contain high amounts of sodium, which can exacerbate hypertension and fluid
retention. Option D is incorrect because whole milk contains saturated fat, which is associated with
increased cardiovascular risk; low-fat or skim milk is preferred. The client's statement demonstrates
understanding of the importance of using healthier fat sources in their diet. The nurse should also
reinforce teaching about limiting sodium intake, increasing fiber consumption, and choosing lean
protein sources.
,A nurse is caring for a client who has COPD. Which of the following findings requires immediate follow-
up? (Select all that apply from assessment data)
Neurological: Client is oriented to person, place, and time. Client is restless. Pupils are reactive to light.
Able to move all extremities.
Pulmonary: Client is tachypneic, cough is productive, and mucous is yellow in color. Wheezes and
crackles heard upon auscultation.
Cardiovascular: Heart rate 110/min, blood pressure 148/90 mmHg.
Integumentary: Skin is warm and dry.
✔️ Correct Answer: Restlessness, Tachypnea, Wheezes and crackles, Heart rate 110/min, Blood pressure
148/90 mmHg
Rationale:
Restlessness is an early sign of hypoxia and indicates deteriorating respiratory status requiring
immediate intervention. Tachypnea (elevated respiratory rate) suggests the client is working harder to
breathe and may be experiencing respiratory distress. Wheezes and crackles indicate airway obstruction
and fluid in the airways, which are concerning findings in a COPD client. Tachycardia (heart rate
110/min) and hypertension (blood pressure 148/90 mmHg) may indicate hypoxia, respiratory distress,
or increased work of breathing. The client's orientation to person, place, and time is a positive finding,
as is reactivity of pupils and ability to move all extremities. Warm, dry skin is expected. The nurse should
prioritize interventions to improve oxygenation, including administering supplemental oxygen (with
caution in COPD clients), positioning for optimal breathing, and notifying the healthcare provider if the
client's condition does not improve.
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure. The client is at risk for developing which of the
following complications? (Select all that apply)
a. Dysrhythmias
b. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Acute kidney injury
d. Fluid volume deficit
✔️ Correct Answer: A and C
Rationale:
Clients with heart failure are at risk for developing dysrhythmias (Option A) due to electrolyte
imbalances, myocardial ischemia, and the effects of medications such as digoxin. Acute kidney injury
(Option C) can develop as a result of decreased cardiac output and reduced renal perfusion, leading to
prerenal azotemia. Option B (Respiratory alkalosis) is not typically associated with heart failure; clients
with heart failure are more likely to develop respiratory acidosis due to pulmonary congestion and
,impaired gas exchange. Option D (Fluid volume deficit) is incorrect because heart failure is characterized
by fluid volume excess, not deficit, resulting from the heart's inability to pump effectively. The nurse
should monitor the client for signs of fluid overload, electrolyte imbalances, and decreased urine
output, and implement interventions to optimize cardiac function and prevent complications.
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has diabetes mellitus about the self-administration of
insulin. The client has prescriptions for regular and NPH insulins. Which of the following statements by
the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
a. "I will draw up the regular insulin into the syringe first."
b. "I will shake the NPH vial vigorously before drawing up the insulin."
c. "I will store prefilled syringes in the refrigerator with the needle pointed downward."
d. "I will insert the needle at a 15-degree angle."
✔️ Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
When mixing regular and NPH insulin, the regular (clear) insulin should be drawn up first to prevent
contamination of the regular insulin vial with NPH (cloudy) insulin. Option B is incorrect because NPH
insulin should be gently rolled between the palms to resuspend it, not shaken vigorously, which can
cause foaming and inaccurate dosing. Option C is incorrect because prefilled syringes should be stored
with the needle pointed upward to prevent insulin from clogging the needle. Option D is incorrect
because subcutaneous insulin injections are typically administered at a 45-90 degree angle, depending
on the client's body mass and needle length. The client's statement demonstrates understanding of the
correct technique for mixing insulins, which is essential for accurate dosing and glycemic control.
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is planning care for a client who has dementia and a history of
wandering. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to implement?
a. Move client to a double room
b. Use chemical restraints at bedtime
c. Use a bed alarm
d. Encourage participation in activities that provide excessive stimulation
✔️ Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
A bed alarm is an appropriate intervention for a client with dementia who has a history of wandering.
The alarm alerts staff when the client attempts to get out of bed, allowing for timely intervention to
prevent falls or elopement. Option A is incorrect because moving the client to a double room could
increase confusion and agitation; a private room with a low-stimulation environment is preferred.
,Option B is incorrect because chemical restraints should be avoided whenever possible and should
never be used for convenience or as a substitute for appropriate care; they can cause adverse effects
and are regulated by federal guidelines. Option D is incorrect because excessive stimulation can
increase confusion and agitation in clients with dementia; activities should be structured and
appropriate to the client's cognitive level. Non-pharmacological interventions such as redirecting,
maintaining a consistent routine, and providing meaningful activities are preferred strategies for
managing wandering behavior.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving TPN. For each potential nursing intervention, click to specify if the
potential intervention is anticipated, nonessential, or contraindicated for the client.
Exhibit 1 - Medical History: Dehydration, Hyperlipidemia, Hypertension, Coronary artery disease (CAD)
Exhibit 2 - Diagnostic Results: WBC count 14,000/mm³, Hgb 14 g/dL, Hct 40%, Sodium 132 mEq/L,
Potassium 6.2 mEq/L, Calcium 10 mg/dL, BUN 20 mg/dL, Albumin 2.8 g/dL, Fasting blood glucose 140
mg/dL
Interventions to evaluate:
Monitor blood glucose every 4-6 hours
Restrict fluid intake to 1,000 mL/day
Check for allergies to components of TPN
Monitor for signs of infection at the IV site
Administer insulin as prescribed for hyperglycemia
✔️ Correct Answer:
Monitor blood glucose every 4-6 hours: ANTICIPATED (TPN can cause hyperglycemia; glucose should
be monitored regularly)
Restrict fluid intake to 1,000 mL/day: CONTRAINDICATED (Client has dehydration; adequate hydration is
needed)
Check for allergies to components of TPN: ANTICIPATED (Allergy assessment should be completed
before initiation)
Monitor for signs of infection at the IV site: ANTICIPATED (TPN is hypertonic and increases infection risk;
site should be monitored)
Administer insulin as prescribed for hyperglycemia: ANTICIPATED (Fasting blood glucose is elevated at
140 mg/dL; insulin may be needed)
Rationale:
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is a hypertonic solution that can cause hyperglycemia, so blood glucose
monitoring is essential (anticipated). The client's elevated glucose of 140 mg/dL and history of CAD
suggest that insulin may be needed. The client is dehydrated, so restricting fluids is contraindicated.
Allergy assessment is standard before initiating TPN. Infection monitoring is critical because TPN
