The Art and Science of Advanced
Practice Nursing – an Interprofessional
Approach 6th Edition by Dunphy,
Winland-Brown, Porter, and Thomas
complete testbank with correct answers
This guide has a set of 200 questions and straight correct answers spanning role development,
professional practice, diagnostics, pharmacotherapeutics, and clinical management across the
lifespan is detailed below.
.
Section 1: APRN Roles, Theory, and
Professional Practice (Questions 1-25)
1. What are the four recognized roles of the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN)?
Nurse Practitioner (NP), Clinical Nurse Specialist (CNS), Certified Registered
Nurse Anesthetist (CRNA), and Certified Nurse-Midwife (CNM).
2. What organization outlines the core competencies required for all APRNs? The National
Organization of Nurse Practitioner Faculties (NONPF) and the American
Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN).
3. What is the primary function of the LACE network in APRN regulation? To align
Licensure, Accreditation, Certification, and Education.
4. What term describes the legal scope of practice for an NP defined by state legislative
statutes? Nurse Practice Act (NPA).
5. What is required for an NP to prescribe controlled substances? A valid state license, a
collaborative or independent prescribing agreement, and a Drug Enforcement
Administration (DEA) registration number.
6. What standard defines the legal duty of an NP to provide care that meets accepted
medical-legal benchmarks? The standard of care.
7. What legal doctrine holds an employer liable for the negligence of its employees?
Respondeat superior ("let the master answer").
8. What ethical principle obligates providers to act in the best interest of the patient (doing
good)? Beneficence.
9. What ethical principle requires providers to do no harm? Nonmaleficence.
10. What ethical principle respects a patient's right to self-determination and decision-
making? Autonomy.
, 11. What ethical principle ensures fair and equitable distribution of healthcare resources?
Justice.
12. What process ensures a patient is informed of the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a
procedure? Informed consent.
13. What document designates a surrogate decision-maker if a patient becomes
incapacitated? A durable power of attorney for healthcare (DPOAHC).
14. What document specifies a patient’s end-of-life treatment preferences, such as intubation
or CPR? A living will or advance directive.
15. What federal law protects patient health information privacy and security? The Health
Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).
16. What model of care delivery emphasizes coordinated, multidisciplinary teamwork to
reduce medical errors? Interprofessional collaborative practice.
17. What four competency domains are defined by the Interprofessional Education
Collaborative (IPEC)? Values/ethics, roles/responsibilities, interprofessional
communication, and teams/teamwork.
18. What quality improvement model uses the Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA) cycle? The
Model for Improvement.
19. What term describes the integration of best research evidence, clinical expertise, and
patient values? Evidence-Based Practice (EBP).
20. What is the highest level of evidence in the traditional hierarchy of research? Systematic
reviews and meta-analyses of randomized controlled trials (RCTs).
21. What theoretical framework describes the acquisition of clinical skills from novice to
expert? Benner’s Novice to Expert Theory.
22. What nursing theory views the patient as an open system constantly interacting with
internal and external stressors? The Newman Systems Model.
23. What term describes an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious
physical/psychological injury? A sentinel event.
24. What proactive risk-assessment tool evaluates processes to identify where and how
failures might occur? Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA).
25. What retrospective problem-solving tool investigates the underlying causes of an adverse
event? Root Cause Analysis (RCA).
Section 2: Advanced Health Assessment and
Diagnostic Reasoning (Questions 26-50)
26. What diagnostic reasoning strategy involves generating a short list of probable diagnoses
early in an encounter? Hypothetico-deductive reasoning.
27. What cognitive bias occurs when a clinician prematurely fixates on a single diagnosis and
ignores contradictory data? Premature closure.
28. What term describes a symptom reported subjectively by the patient? Subjective data
(e.g., pain, nausea).
29. What term describes an observation or measurement gathered objectively by the
clinician? Objective data (e.g., blood pressure, wheezing).
Practice Nursing – an Interprofessional
Approach 6th Edition by Dunphy,
Winland-Brown, Porter, and Thomas
complete testbank with correct answers
This guide has a set of 200 questions and straight correct answers spanning role development,
professional practice, diagnostics, pharmacotherapeutics, and clinical management across the
lifespan is detailed below.
.
Section 1: APRN Roles, Theory, and
Professional Practice (Questions 1-25)
1. What are the four recognized roles of the Advanced Practice Registered Nurse (APRN)?
Nurse Practitioner (NP), Clinical Nurse Specialist (CNS), Certified Registered
Nurse Anesthetist (CRNA), and Certified Nurse-Midwife (CNM).
2. What organization outlines the core competencies required for all APRNs? The National
Organization of Nurse Practitioner Faculties (NONPF) and the American
Association of Colleges of Nursing (AACN).
3. What is the primary function of the LACE network in APRN regulation? To align
Licensure, Accreditation, Certification, and Education.
4. What term describes the legal scope of practice for an NP defined by state legislative
statutes? Nurse Practice Act (NPA).
5. What is required for an NP to prescribe controlled substances? A valid state license, a
collaborative or independent prescribing agreement, and a Drug Enforcement
Administration (DEA) registration number.
6. What standard defines the legal duty of an NP to provide care that meets accepted
medical-legal benchmarks? The standard of care.
7. What legal doctrine holds an employer liable for the negligence of its employees?
Respondeat superior ("let the master answer").
8. What ethical principle obligates providers to act in the best interest of the patient (doing
good)? Beneficence.
9. What ethical principle requires providers to do no harm? Nonmaleficence.
10. What ethical principle respects a patient's right to self-determination and decision-
making? Autonomy.
, 11. What ethical principle ensures fair and equitable distribution of healthcare resources?
Justice.
12. What process ensures a patient is informed of the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a
procedure? Informed consent.
13. What document designates a surrogate decision-maker if a patient becomes
incapacitated? A durable power of attorney for healthcare (DPOAHC).
14. What document specifies a patient’s end-of-life treatment preferences, such as intubation
or CPR? A living will or advance directive.
15. What federal law protects patient health information privacy and security? The Health
Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).
16. What model of care delivery emphasizes coordinated, multidisciplinary teamwork to
reduce medical errors? Interprofessional collaborative practice.
17. What four competency domains are defined by the Interprofessional Education
Collaborative (IPEC)? Values/ethics, roles/responsibilities, interprofessional
communication, and teams/teamwork.
18. What quality improvement model uses the Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA) cycle? The
Model for Improvement.
19. What term describes the integration of best research evidence, clinical expertise, and
patient values? Evidence-Based Practice (EBP).
20. What is the highest level of evidence in the traditional hierarchy of research? Systematic
reviews and meta-analyses of randomized controlled trials (RCTs).
21. What theoretical framework describes the acquisition of clinical skills from novice to
expert? Benner’s Novice to Expert Theory.
22. What nursing theory views the patient as an open system constantly interacting with
internal and external stressors? The Newman Systems Model.
23. What term describes an unexpected occurrence involving death or serious
physical/psychological injury? A sentinel event.
24. What proactive risk-assessment tool evaluates processes to identify where and how
failures might occur? Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA).
25. What retrospective problem-solving tool investigates the underlying causes of an adverse
event? Root Cause Analysis (RCA).
Section 2: Advanced Health Assessment and
Diagnostic Reasoning (Questions 26-50)
26. What diagnostic reasoning strategy involves generating a short list of probable diagnoses
early in an encounter? Hypothetico-deductive reasoning.
27. What cognitive bias occurs when a clinician prematurely fixates on a single diagnosis and
ignores contradictory data? Premature closure.
28. What term describes a symptom reported subjectively by the patient? Subjective data
(e.g., pain, nausea).
29. What term describes an observation or measurement gathered objectively by the
clinician? Objective data (e.g., blood pressure, wheezing).
