2026/2027
Air Methods Flight and Critical Care
Operations Exam Prep 2026/2027:
Evidence-Based Practice, Scenario-
Based Quizzes, and Skills
Reinforcement Workbook
Question 1
A nurse receives handover report on four patients. Which patient should be assessed
first?
A. 62-year-old scheduled for cardiac catheterization and ready for transport
B. 58-year-old with COPD, SpO₂ 92% on 2L oxygen, planned discharge
C. 36-year-old with asthma exacerbation, RR 36/min with reduced wheezing
D. 72-year-old with asthma, HR 90, due for beta-blocker
Correct Answer: C. 36-year-old with asthma exacerbation, RR 36/min with
reduced wheezing
Rationale: The patient showing a respiratory rate of 36/min and diminished wheezing
is demonstrating signs of impending respiratory failure. Reduced wheezing in severe
asthma can indicate poor air movement rather than improvement. This patient requires
immediate intervention. The other patients are stable or scheduled for routine care and
do not present acute life-threatening deterioration.
Question 2
Which patient requires the most immediate attention during handover?
A. COPD patient post bronchodilator therapy
B. Stroke patient (CVA 2 days ago)
C. Asthma patient with HR 90 awaiting beta-blocker
D. Cellulitis patient with fever 101.8°F (38.8°C) on IV antibiotics
Correct Answer: D. Cellulitis patient with fever 101.8°F (38.8°C) on IV
antibiotics
,2026/2027
Rationale: Fever in a patient with cellulitis suggests worsening infection or possible
sepsis progression. This requires urgent assessment. While other patients require
monitoring, none show immediate systemic infection risk or instability.
Question 3
Which actions are appropriate before a cardiac angiogram? (Select all that apply)
A. Explain short-acting anesthesia will be used
B. Check for iodine/contrast allergy
C. Advise family to remain at home during procedure
D. Review medication history, especially anticoagulants
E. Check PT/INR results
Correct Answer: B, D, E
Rationale: Contrast dye contains iodine and can cause allergic reactions.
Anticoagulants increase bleeding risk, and coagulation status must be reviewed.
PT/INR is essential for assessing bleeding risk. Sedation is typically conscious, not
full anesthesia, and family presence policies are not clinically relevant.
Question 4
What is the best method for ICU-to-stepdown transfer communication?
A. Audio-recorded report
B. Documentation only in chart
C. ICU nurse accompanies patient and gives structured verbal report
D. Verbal report over phone
Correct Answer: C. ICU nurse accompanies patient and gives structured verbal
report
Rationale: Face-to-face structured handover ensures accurate communication, allows
clarification, and reduces errors. Standardized tools improve patient safety. Written or
audio-only communication lacks real-time clarification.
Question 5
What is the most common outcome of poor discharge planning?
A. Infection
B. Adverse drug events
C. Falls
D. Readmission delays
Correct Answer: B. Adverse drug events
,2026/2027
Rationale: Medication errors are the most frequent complication after discharge due to
poor reconciliation, misunderstanding instructions, or polypharmacy issues. These
events significantly increase morbidity and readmission risk.
Question 6
Best indicator of successful heart failure discharge education?
A. No weight gain in 85% patients
B. Caregivers watched education video
C. 5% hospital readmission in 90 days
D. 80% medication adherence
Correct Answer: C. 5% hospital readmission in 90 days
Rationale: Readmission rates are a strong quality indicator used by healthcare systems.
Lower readmissions reflect effective education, monitoring, and transition care
planning.
Question 7
Which statements show correct understanding of chlorothiazide therapy? (Select all)
A. Weigh myself daily
B. Report sudden weight gain and swelling
C. Reduce dose if dizzy
D. Use sunscreen in sunlight
E. Take alcohol with medication at night
Correct Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: Daily weights detect fluid changes. Reporting weight gain helps detect
fluid retention. Diuretics increase photosensitivity, requiring sun protection. Patients
should never self-adjust dosage or combine alcohol without guidance.
Question 8
Which item should NOT be used in pressure injury prevention?
A. Rolled towels
B. Foam overlay
C. Foam pads
D. Viscoelastic mattress
Correct Answer: A. Rolled towels
, 2026/2027
Rationale: Rolled towels increase localized pressure and friction, worsening tissue
injury. Proper pressure-relieving surfaces distribute weight evenly and reduce skin
breakdown risk.
Question 9
Most common cause of delayed wound healing?
A. Diabetes
B. Infection
C. Malnutrition
D. Poor circulation
Correct Answer: B. Infection
Rationale: Surgical site infections disrupt tissue repair, prolong inflammation, and
delay healing. While other factors contribute, infection is the most direct and frequent
cause of delayed healing.
Question 10
Jehovah’s Witness patient refusing transfusion should be managed by:
A. Respecting refusal and using permitted blood fractions
B. Contacting family for override
C. Court order
D. Transfusing due to emergency
Correct Answer: A. Respecting refusal and using permitted blood fractions
Rationale: Competent adults have the right to refuse blood products. Some Jehovah’s
Witness patients accept blood fractions. Respecting autonomy is both ethical and legal.
Question 11
Best initial nursing action for hospice patient prioritization?
A. Nurse judgment first
B. Patient/family priority
C. Physiological elimination needs
D. Provider preference
Correct Answer: B. Patient/family priority
Rationale: Hospice care is patient-centered and focuses on quality of life. Patient-
defined goals and priorities guide care planning, especially in end-of-life situations.
Air Methods Flight and Critical Care
Operations Exam Prep 2026/2027:
Evidence-Based Practice, Scenario-
Based Quizzes, and Skills
Reinforcement Workbook
Question 1
A nurse receives handover report on four patients. Which patient should be assessed
first?
A. 62-year-old scheduled for cardiac catheterization and ready for transport
B. 58-year-old with COPD, SpO₂ 92% on 2L oxygen, planned discharge
C. 36-year-old with asthma exacerbation, RR 36/min with reduced wheezing
D. 72-year-old with asthma, HR 90, due for beta-blocker
Correct Answer: C. 36-year-old with asthma exacerbation, RR 36/min with
reduced wheezing
Rationale: The patient showing a respiratory rate of 36/min and diminished wheezing
is demonstrating signs of impending respiratory failure. Reduced wheezing in severe
asthma can indicate poor air movement rather than improvement. This patient requires
immediate intervention. The other patients are stable or scheduled for routine care and
do not present acute life-threatening deterioration.
Question 2
Which patient requires the most immediate attention during handover?
A. COPD patient post bronchodilator therapy
B. Stroke patient (CVA 2 days ago)
C. Asthma patient with HR 90 awaiting beta-blocker
D. Cellulitis patient with fever 101.8°F (38.8°C) on IV antibiotics
Correct Answer: D. Cellulitis patient with fever 101.8°F (38.8°C) on IV
antibiotics
,2026/2027
Rationale: Fever in a patient with cellulitis suggests worsening infection or possible
sepsis progression. This requires urgent assessment. While other patients require
monitoring, none show immediate systemic infection risk or instability.
Question 3
Which actions are appropriate before a cardiac angiogram? (Select all that apply)
A. Explain short-acting anesthesia will be used
B. Check for iodine/contrast allergy
C. Advise family to remain at home during procedure
D. Review medication history, especially anticoagulants
E. Check PT/INR results
Correct Answer: B, D, E
Rationale: Contrast dye contains iodine and can cause allergic reactions.
Anticoagulants increase bleeding risk, and coagulation status must be reviewed.
PT/INR is essential for assessing bleeding risk. Sedation is typically conscious, not
full anesthesia, and family presence policies are not clinically relevant.
Question 4
What is the best method for ICU-to-stepdown transfer communication?
A. Audio-recorded report
B. Documentation only in chart
C. ICU nurse accompanies patient and gives structured verbal report
D. Verbal report over phone
Correct Answer: C. ICU nurse accompanies patient and gives structured verbal
report
Rationale: Face-to-face structured handover ensures accurate communication, allows
clarification, and reduces errors. Standardized tools improve patient safety. Written or
audio-only communication lacks real-time clarification.
Question 5
What is the most common outcome of poor discharge planning?
A. Infection
B. Adverse drug events
C. Falls
D. Readmission delays
Correct Answer: B. Adverse drug events
,2026/2027
Rationale: Medication errors are the most frequent complication after discharge due to
poor reconciliation, misunderstanding instructions, or polypharmacy issues. These
events significantly increase morbidity and readmission risk.
Question 6
Best indicator of successful heart failure discharge education?
A. No weight gain in 85% patients
B. Caregivers watched education video
C. 5% hospital readmission in 90 days
D. 80% medication adherence
Correct Answer: C. 5% hospital readmission in 90 days
Rationale: Readmission rates are a strong quality indicator used by healthcare systems.
Lower readmissions reflect effective education, monitoring, and transition care
planning.
Question 7
Which statements show correct understanding of chlorothiazide therapy? (Select all)
A. Weigh myself daily
B. Report sudden weight gain and swelling
C. Reduce dose if dizzy
D. Use sunscreen in sunlight
E. Take alcohol with medication at night
Correct Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: Daily weights detect fluid changes. Reporting weight gain helps detect
fluid retention. Diuretics increase photosensitivity, requiring sun protection. Patients
should never self-adjust dosage or combine alcohol without guidance.
Question 8
Which item should NOT be used in pressure injury prevention?
A. Rolled towels
B. Foam overlay
C. Foam pads
D. Viscoelastic mattress
Correct Answer: A. Rolled towels
, 2026/2027
Rationale: Rolled towels increase localized pressure and friction, worsening tissue
injury. Proper pressure-relieving surfaces distribute weight evenly and reduce skin
breakdown risk.
Question 9
Most common cause of delayed wound healing?
A. Diabetes
B. Infection
C. Malnutrition
D. Poor circulation
Correct Answer: B. Infection
Rationale: Surgical site infections disrupt tissue repair, prolong inflammation, and
delay healing. While other factors contribute, infection is the most direct and frequent
cause of delayed healing.
Question 10
Jehovah’s Witness patient refusing transfusion should be managed by:
A. Respecting refusal and using permitted blood fractions
B. Contacting family for override
C. Court order
D. Transfusing due to emergency
Correct Answer: A. Respecting refusal and using permitted blood fractions
Rationale: Competent adults have the right to refuse blood products. Some Jehovah’s
Witness patients accept blood fractions. Respecting autonomy is both ethical and legal.
Question 11
Best initial nursing action for hospice patient prioritization?
A. Nurse judgment first
B. Patient/family priority
C. Physiological elimination needs
D. Provider preference
Correct Answer: B. Patient/family priority
Rationale: Hospice care is patient-centered and focuses on quality of life. Patient-
defined goals and priorities guide care planning, especially in end-of-life situations.
