Pass the NURS 5434 FNP III Final Exam on your first attempt with this comprehensive 2026 study guide featuring verified questions and answers in PDF format! This A+ Graded resource for University of Texas at Arlington (UTA) NURS 5434 Family Nurse Practitioner III Final Exam contains verified questions with correct answers covering all essential FNP concepts required for course completion and national certification preparation. Featuring comprehensive coverage of advanced primary care across the lifespan, management of acute and chronic conditions in family practice, complex clinical decision-making and diagnostic reasoning, differential diagnosis for common and complex patient presentations, evidence-based practice guidelines for primary care, pharmacology for family practice (antibiotic selection, chronic disease medications, pain management protocols, controlled substance prescribing, polypharmacy risks, geriatric dosing adjustments, pediatric dosing calculations, pregnancy and lactation medication safety), management of cardiovascular disorders (hypertension - JNC/ACC/AHA guidelines, hyperlipidemia - statin therapy and lipid targets, heart failure - GDMT therapy, coronary artery disease - antianginal and antiplatelet therapy, atrial fibrillation - rate vs rhythm control and anticoagulation, peripheral vascular disease), management of respiratory disorders (COPD - GOLD guidelines, asthma - GINA guidelines, pneumonia - IDSA/ATS guidelines, bronchitis, sleep apnea, pulmonary embolism), management of endocrine disorders (diabetes mellitus types 1 and 2 - ADA guidelines, insulin therapy, oral hypoglycemics, GLP-1 agonists, SGLT2 inhibitors; thyroid disorders - hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, thyroid nodules; adrenal disorders; metabolic syndrome), management of gastrointestinal disorders (GERD, peptic ulcer disease - H. pylori treatment, IBS, IBD - Crohn's and ulcerative colitis, hepatitis - A, B, C, alcoholic, NAFLD; pancreatitis, colorectal cancer screening), management of neurological disorders (headache disorders - tension, migraine, cluster; seizures and epilepsy, stroke - acute and secondary prevention, TIA, dementia - Alzheimer's, vascular, Lewy body; Parkinson's disease, multiple sclerosis, neuropathy), management of musculoskeletal disorders (osteoarthritis - pharmacologic and non-pharmacologic, rheumatoid arthritis - DMARDs and biologics, gout - acute and chronic management, back pain - acute, chronic, radicular; fibromyalgia, sports injuries - sprains, strains, fractures), management of dermatological disorders (acne, eczema/atopic dermatitis, psoriasis, skin infections - bacterial, viral, fungal; skin cancer screening - ABCDEs of melanoma), management of genitourinary disorders (UTI - uncomplicated vs complicated, BPH - alpha blockers, 5-ARIs; incontinence - stress, urge, overflow; STIs - chlamydia, gonorrhea, syphilis, herpes, HPV, HIV; erectile dysfunction, chronic kidney disease), management of mental health disorders in primary care (depression - MDD, PDD, postpartum; anxiety disorders - GAD, panic disorder, social anxiety; bipolar disorder, PTSD, ADHD, substance use disorders - alcohol, opioids, stimulants; suicide risk assessment), women's health in primary care (contraception - oral, injectable, IUD, implant, emergency; menopause - hormone therapy, non-hormonal options; HPV, cervical cancer screening - Pap and HPV testing; breast health - clinical breast exam, mammography guidelines; pregnancy testing and prenatal care basics), men's health in primary care (testosterone deficiency - diagnosis and treatment, prostate health - BPH, prostatitis, prostate cancer screening - PSA counseling; testicular cancer screening), pediatric primary care (well-child visits - schedules and components, developmental milestones - gross motor, fine motor, language, social; immunizations - CDC schedule, vaccine hesitancy; common childhood illnesses - otitis media, pharyngitis, URI, gastroenteritis; pediatric medication dosing - weight-based calculations, off-label use; pediatric obesity, ADHD, asthma in children), geriatric primary care (falls prevention - risk assessment and interventions, cognitive assessment - Mini-Cog, MOCA, SLUMS; dementia screening and management, polypharmacy - Beers Criteria, STOPP/START criteria; advance care planning - advance directives, healthcare proxy, goals of care; functional assessment - ADLs, IADLs; geriatric syndromes - frailty, sarcopenia, delirium), preventive care and health maintenance (USPSTF screening guidelines - cancer screening, cardiovascular screening, metabolic screening; immunization schedules across the lifespan, lifestyle counseling - diet, exercise, smoking cessation, alcohol use; risk factor modification), chronic disease management and care coordination, patient education and shared decision-making, interprofessional collaboration and appropriate referral, quality improvement in primary care settings, legal and ethical issues in FNP practice (scope of practice by state, prescribing authority including controlled substances, DEA requirements, documentation standards, informed consent, capacity and decisional capacity, mandatory reporting - child abuse, elder abuse, communicable diseases; telehealth regulations and best practices, risk management and malpractice prevention), and preparation for national FNP certification exams (AANP and ANCC exam domains, test-taking strategies, question analysis), it provides the exact practice needed to master the official UTA NURS 5434 Final Exam. With detailed rationales, complex clinical case scenarios, evidence-based guideline applications, pharmacology decision-making frameworks, differential diagnosis tables, screening and treatment algorithms, and our Pass Guarantee, this is the definitive tool for UTA FNP students seeking top scores on their FNP III final examination and preparing for national certification. Download the PDF now and complete your UTA NURS 5434 requirement with confidence!
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URS 5434 FNP III FINAL EXAM 2026 |
N
Questions & Answers | UTA Nursing |
Family Nurse Practitioner | PDF | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
[DOMAIN 1: OPHTHALMOLOGY (EENT) - 35 Questions]
## **Question 1**
#
A 45-year-old patient presents with crusty, irritated eyelid margins and redness. with debris
buildup near the eyelash roots. They also report dry eye sensation. What is the first-line
treatment?
) Oral doxycycline 100 mg BID
A
B) Topical erythromycin ointment
C) Lid scrub with baby shampoo
D) Warm compresses only
E) Topical steroid drops
**[CORRECT: C]**
* *Rationale:** This presentation describes **blepharitis** (inflammation of the eyelid margins).
First-line treatment is lid hygiene using diluted baby shampoo or commercial lid scrubs. which
mechanically removes debris and improves meibomian gland function. Antibiotics (A) are
reserved for resistant cases. Erythromycin (B) treats bacterial conjunctivitis. Warm compresses
(D) alone are insufficient, and steroids (E) are contraindicated without addressing underlying
obstruction.
---
## **Question 2**
#
Which finding distinguishes a **pinguecula** from a **pterygium**?
) Presence of a fibrovascular growth
A
B) Whether the lesion crosses the limbus onto the cornea
C) Yellowish color of the lesion
D) Location on the nasal conjunctiva
E) Associated foreign body sensation
**[CORRECT: B]**
,* *Rationale:** The critical distinguishing feature is **corneal involvement**. A pinguecula is a
yellowish raised lesion on the nasal conjunctiva that does NOT cross the limbus (corneal
border). A pterygium is a wing-shaped growth of fibrovascular tissue that **extends onto the
cornea** and may impair vision. Both can appear yellowish and on nasal conjunctiva.
---
## **Question 3**
#
A patient has a painful, erythematous nodule on the eyelid margin with purulent drainage.
Another patient has a painless, firm nodule within the tarsal plate. What conditions are
represented?
) Both are chalazia
A
B) Hordeolum and then chalazion
C) Chalazion, then hordeolum
D) Both are hordeola
E) Conjunctivitis and blepharitis
**[CORRECT: B]**
* *Rationale:** The first description is a **hordeolum (stye)**—painful, superficial infection of
eyelash follicle or gland. The second is a **chalazion**—painless, deeper nodule within tarsal
plate from blocked meibomian gland. Location and pain characteristics distinguish these
entities.
---
## **Question 4**
#
A 6-year-old child presents with ear pain, fever, and a bulging, erythematous tympanic
membrane with decreased mobility. What is the most likely causative organism?
) Moraxella catarrhalis
A
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Group A Streptococcus
**[CORRECT: B]**
* *Rationale:** This is **acute otitis media (AOM)**. In pediatric patients, the most common
bacterial pathogen is **Streptococcus pneumoniae**, followed by Haemophilus influenzae and
, oraxella catarrhalis. The bulging TM and systemic symptoms (fever) distinguish AOM from
M
otitis externa.
---
## **Question 5**
#
A patient presents with sudden onset unilateral leg swelling, calf pain, and warmth. What is the
priority concern?
) Cellulitis
A
B) Deep vein thrombosis
C) Baker's cyst rupture
C) Muscle strain
D) Superficial thrombophlebitis
E) Lymphedema
**[CORRECT: B]**
* *Rationale:** **Sudden unilateral leg swelling with calf pain** is the classic presentation for
**deep vein thrombosis (DVT)**. This requires immediate evaluation due to risk of pulmonary
embolism. While cellulitis (A) causes erythema and warmth, it typically lacks the sudden onset
and degree of swelling seen in DVT.
---
## **Question 6**
#
Which medication is indicated for a patient with episodic migraine experiencing 6 headache
days per month with moderate disability?
) Sumatriptan acute therapy only
A
B) Propranolol preventive therapy
C) Aspirin 325 mg daily
D) Metoclopramide daily
E) Verapamil acute therapy
**[CORRECT: B]**
* *Rationale:** Indications for **preventive therapy** include: 4+ headache days with some
disability, or 6+ days with no disability. This patient qualifies. **Propranolol** (beta-blocker) is
first-line preventive therapy. Sumatriptan (A) is for acute treatment. The others are not standard
preventive agents.
---
, ## **Question 7**
#
A patient with diabetes presents with sweating, confusion, tremor, and palpitations. What is the
most likely condition?
) Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state
A
B) Diabetic ketoacidosis
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Thyroid storm
E) Pheochromocytoma
**[CORRECT: C]**
* *Rationale:** **Hypoglycemia** presents with **sympathetic activation**: sweating, tremor,
palpitations, confusion, and weakness. This contrasts with hyperglycemic states (A, B) which
present with dehydration and altered mental without sweating.
---
## **Question 8**
#
What is the diagnostic criterion for diabetes mellitus?
) Fasting plasma glucose ≥126 mg/dL on one occasion with symptoms
A
B) Fasting plasma glucose ≥126 mg/dL on two separate tests
C) Random glucose >200 mg/dL with classic symptoms
D) HbA1c ≥7.0%
E) Two-hour OGTT ≥140 mg/dL
**[CORRECT: B]**
* *Rationale:** Diabetes diagnosis requires **fasting plasma glucose ≥126 mg/dL on two
separate tests** OR random glucose >200 mg/dL with classic symptoms (polyuria, polydipsia,
polyphagia), OR HbA1c ≥6.5%. Option B is the most specific standalone criterion.
---
## **Question 9**
#
Which finding is most concerning for gastrointestinal bleeding in a patient on warfarin therapy?
) INR 4.5
A
B) Minor bruising on arms
C) Black tarry stools (melena)
D) INR 1.8
E) Headache