Respiratory Therapy Board Exam Practice
Questions 2026/2027 | NBRC TMC & CSE
Prep with Answers & Explanations
Description:
Master the 2026/2027 Respiratory Therapy exams with 110 high-yield practice questions
covering mechanical ventilation, ABG interpretation, pharmacology, and
hemodynamics.
Each answer includes detailed explanations.
Download the complete exam guide now and boost your NBRC score!
, Respiratory Therapy Exam 2026/2027: 110 Practice Q&A
Section 1: Oxygen Therapy and Blood Gas Analysis
1. Which of the following parameters is required to calculate alveolar oxygen tension
(PAO2)?
A. VD/VT and PAO2
B. Barometric pressure and FiO2
C. PetCO2 and PaO2
D. QS/QT and deadspace
Answer: B
Explanation: The alveolar gas equation requires barometric pressure (PB), FiO2, PaCO2,
and a constant for water vapor pressure (47 mm Hg). The formula is PAO2 = (PB - 47) ×
FiO2 - (PaCO2 ÷ R), where R is the respiratory quotient typically assumed as 0.8.
2. A spontaneously breathing patient presents with the following arterial blood gas
results on room air: pH 7.38, PaCO2 42 mm Hg, PaO2 76 mm Hg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L,
BE 0 mEq/L. Which supplemental oxygen flow rate is most appropriate?
A. 2 L/min via nasal cannula
B. 5 L/min via nasal cannula
C. Non-rebreathing mask
D. Venturi mask at 30% oxygen
Answer: B
Explanation: The patient demonstrates mild hypoxemia without evidence of chronic CO2
retention (normal PaCO2). The adult therapeutic oxygen range for non-emergent hypoxemia
is 40-55% FiO2. A nasal cannula at 5 L/min delivers approximately 40% FiO2, which is
appropriate.
3. A patient receiving volume-controlled mechanical ventilation has an A-a gradient of
275 mm Hg while on FiO2 of 1.0. This finding most closely indicates:
A. Hyperbaric therapy is indicated
B. The patient has a significant shunt
,C. PEEP is indicated
D. IPPB is indicated
Answer: C
Explanation: An A-a gradient exceeding 300 mm Hg on 100% oxygen typically indicates
significant intrapulmonary shunting (>20%). A gradient of 275 mm Hg suggests V/Q
mismatch that may respond to PEEP recruitment maneuvers. PEEP is the most appropriate
initial intervention.
Section 2: Hemodynamic Monitoring and Cardiovascular Assessment
4. The unit of measurement L/min/m² corresponds to which of the following?
A. Systemic vascular resistance
B. Cardiac output
C. Cardiac index
D. Stroke volume
Answer: C
Explanation: Cardiac index is calculated by dividing cardiac output (L/min) by body surface
area (m²), yielding units of L/min/m². This normalizes cardiac function to patient size.
5. Left heart failure would be manifested by abnormalities in which of the following
values?
A. CVP and mPAP
B. mPAP and wedge pressure
C. MAP and SVR
D. Cardiac output and wedge pressure
Answer: D
Explanation: Left ventricular function is best assessed by evaluating preload (pulmonary
capillary wedge pressure, reflecting left atrial pressure) and cardiac output. Elevated PCWP
with reduced cardiac output indicates left heart dysfunction.
, 6. A patient with congestive heart failure has peripheral pitting edema rated at +4.
Which medication would be most helpful in correcting this fluid accumulation?
A. D5W fluid
B. Nitroprusside (Nipride)
C. Osmitrol (Mannitol)
D. Acetazolamide (Diamox)
Answer: D
Explanation: Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that promotes diuresis and is
particularly effective for managing peripheral edema associated with CHF.
7. Which of the following best describes the function of digitalis preparations?
A. Lowers blood pressure
B. Increases heart rate
C. Increases blood pressure
D. Increases strength of cardiac contractility
Answer: D
Explanation: Digitalis (digoxin) is a positive inotropic agent that increases the force of
myocardial contraction, improving cardiac output in patients with heart failure.
Section 3: Mechanical Ventilation and Airway Management
8. For a patient receiving volume-controlled mechanical ventilation, the lower inflection
point on a pressure-volume loop best represents:
A. The pressure required to keep alveoli and small airways open
B. Optimal PEEP
C. Minimal PEEP
D. Upper limit of residual volume
Answer: A
Explanation: The lower inflection point (LIP) on a pressure-volume curve indicates the
pressure at which collapsed alveoli begin to recruit and open. This represents the minimum
pressure needed to maintain alveolar patency.
Questions 2026/2027 | NBRC TMC & CSE
Prep with Answers & Explanations
Description:
Master the 2026/2027 Respiratory Therapy exams with 110 high-yield practice questions
covering mechanical ventilation, ABG interpretation, pharmacology, and
hemodynamics.
Each answer includes detailed explanations.
Download the complete exam guide now and boost your NBRC score!
, Respiratory Therapy Exam 2026/2027: 110 Practice Q&A
Section 1: Oxygen Therapy and Blood Gas Analysis
1. Which of the following parameters is required to calculate alveolar oxygen tension
(PAO2)?
A. VD/VT and PAO2
B. Barometric pressure and FiO2
C. PetCO2 and PaO2
D. QS/QT and deadspace
Answer: B
Explanation: The alveolar gas equation requires barometric pressure (PB), FiO2, PaCO2,
and a constant for water vapor pressure (47 mm Hg). The formula is PAO2 = (PB - 47) ×
FiO2 - (PaCO2 ÷ R), where R is the respiratory quotient typically assumed as 0.8.
2. A spontaneously breathing patient presents with the following arterial blood gas
results on room air: pH 7.38, PaCO2 42 mm Hg, PaO2 76 mm Hg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L,
BE 0 mEq/L. Which supplemental oxygen flow rate is most appropriate?
A. 2 L/min via nasal cannula
B. 5 L/min via nasal cannula
C. Non-rebreathing mask
D. Venturi mask at 30% oxygen
Answer: B
Explanation: The patient demonstrates mild hypoxemia without evidence of chronic CO2
retention (normal PaCO2). The adult therapeutic oxygen range for non-emergent hypoxemia
is 40-55% FiO2. A nasal cannula at 5 L/min delivers approximately 40% FiO2, which is
appropriate.
3. A patient receiving volume-controlled mechanical ventilation has an A-a gradient of
275 mm Hg while on FiO2 of 1.0. This finding most closely indicates:
A. Hyperbaric therapy is indicated
B. The patient has a significant shunt
,C. PEEP is indicated
D. IPPB is indicated
Answer: C
Explanation: An A-a gradient exceeding 300 mm Hg on 100% oxygen typically indicates
significant intrapulmonary shunting (>20%). A gradient of 275 mm Hg suggests V/Q
mismatch that may respond to PEEP recruitment maneuvers. PEEP is the most appropriate
initial intervention.
Section 2: Hemodynamic Monitoring and Cardiovascular Assessment
4. The unit of measurement L/min/m² corresponds to which of the following?
A. Systemic vascular resistance
B. Cardiac output
C. Cardiac index
D. Stroke volume
Answer: C
Explanation: Cardiac index is calculated by dividing cardiac output (L/min) by body surface
area (m²), yielding units of L/min/m². This normalizes cardiac function to patient size.
5. Left heart failure would be manifested by abnormalities in which of the following
values?
A. CVP and mPAP
B. mPAP and wedge pressure
C. MAP and SVR
D. Cardiac output and wedge pressure
Answer: D
Explanation: Left ventricular function is best assessed by evaluating preload (pulmonary
capillary wedge pressure, reflecting left atrial pressure) and cardiac output. Elevated PCWP
with reduced cardiac output indicates left heart dysfunction.
, 6. A patient with congestive heart failure has peripheral pitting edema rated at +4.
Which medication would be most helpful in correcting this fluid accumulation?
A. D5W fluid
B. Nitroprusside (Nipride)
C. Osmitrol (Mannitol)
D. Acetazolamide (Diamox)
Answer: D
Explanation: Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that promotes diuresis and is
particularly effective for managing peripheral edema associated with CHF.
7. Which of the following best describes the function of digitalis preparations?
A. Lowers blood pressure
B. Increases heart rate
C. Increases blood pressure
D. Increases strength of cardiac contractility
Answer: D
Explanation: Digitalis (digoxin) is a positive inotropic agent that increases the force of
myocardial contraction, improving cardiac output in patients with heart failure.
Section 3: Mechanical Ventilation and Airway Management
8. For a patient receiving volume-controlled mechanical ventilation, the lower inflection
point on a pressure-volume loop best represents:
A. The pressure required to keep alveoli and small airways open
B. Optimal PEEP
C. Minimal PEEP
D. Upper limit of residual volume
Answer: A
Explanation: The lower inflection point (LIP) on a pressure-volume curve indicates the
pressure at which collapsed alveoli begin to recruit and open. This represents the minimum
pressure needed to maintain alveolar patency.
