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HONDROS NUR 200 CERTIFICATION EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS 2026

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HONDROS NUR 200 CERTIFICATION EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS 2026

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HONDROS NUR 200 CERTIFICATION EXAM
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS 2026

⏺ A client who had a stroke is receiving clopidogrel (Plavix). Which adverse
effect does the nurse monitor for in this client?

A) New-onset confusion
B) Repeated syncope
C) Abdominal distention
D) Spontaneous ecchymosis? Answer:D

Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that can cause bleeding,
bruising, and liver dysfunction. The nurse should be alert for signs of
bleeding, such as ecchymosis, bleeding gums, and tarry stools. Plavix does
not cause syncope, confusion, or abdominal distention.

⏺ A client receiving intravenous chemotherapy asks the nurse the reason
for wearing a mask, gloves, and gown while administering drugs to the
client. What is the nurse's best response?

A) "I am preventing the spread of infection from you to me or any other
client here."
B) "The clothing protects me from accidentally absorbing these drugs."
C) "The policy is for any nurse giving these drugs to wear a gown, gloves,
and mask."
D) "These coverings protect you from getting an infection from me."?
Answer:B

Most chemotherapy drugs are absorbed through the skin and mucous
membranes. As a result, health care workers who prepare or give these
drugs, especially nurses and pharmacists, are at risk for absorbing them.
Even at low doses, chronic exposure to chemotherapy drugs can affect
health. The Oncology Nursing Society and the Occupational Safety and
Health Administration (OSHA) have specific guidelines for using caution

,and wearing protective clothing whenever preparing, giving, or disposing of
chemotherapy drugs.

⏺ The earliest and most sensitive assessment finding that would indicate
an alteration in intracranial regulation would be:

A) change in level of consciousness.
B) unequal pupil size.
C) loss of primitive reflexes.
D) inability to focus visually.? Answer:A

A change in level of consciousness is the earliest and most sensitive
indication of a change in intracranial processing. This is assessed with the
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), which assesses eye opening and verbal and
motor response. The inability to focus may indicate a change, but it is not
one of the earliest indicators or a component of the GCS. Primitive reflexes
refers to those reflexes found in a normal infant that disappear with
maturation. These reflexes may reappear with frontal lobe dysfunction and
may be tested for with a suspected brain injury, so it would be the
reappearance of primitive reflexes. A change in pupil size or unequal pupils
may indicate a change, but they are not one of the earliest indicators or a
component of the GCS.

⏺ Which client statement indicates a good understanding regarding
antibiotic therapy for recurrent urinary tract infections?

A) "Even if I feel completely well, I should take the medication until it is
gone."
B) "When my urine no longer burns, I will no longer need to take the
antibiotics."
C) "If my urine becomes lighter and clearer, I can stop taking my medicine."
D) "If I have a fever higher than 100° F (37.8° C), I should take twice as
much medicine."? Answer:A

Antibiotic therapy is most effective, especially for recurrent urinary tract
infections, when the client takes the prescribed medication for the entire
course, not just when symptoms are present. The other statements
demonstrate that additional teaching is needed for the client.

, ⏺ A client presents with a pressure ulcer on the ankle. Which is the first
intervention that the nurse implements?

A) Place the client in bed and instruct him or her to elevate the foot.
B) Prepare for and assist with obtaining a wound culture.
C) Assess the affected leg for pulses, skin color, and temperature.
D) Draw blood for albumin, prealbumin, and total protein.? Answer:C

A client with an ulcer on the foot should be assessed for interruption in
arterial flow to the area. This begins with assessment of pulses and color
and temperature of the skin. The nurse can also assess for pulses
noninvasively with a Doppler if unable to palpate with his or her fingers.
Elevation of the foot would impair the ability of arterial blood to flow to the
area. Wound cultures are done after it has been determined drainage,
odor, and other risks for infection are present. Tests to determine nutritional
status and risk assessment would be completed after the initial assessment
is done.

⏺ During assessment of a client with a 15-year history of diabetes, the
nurse notes that the client has decreased tactile sensation in both feet.
Which action does the nurse take first?

A) Notify the health care provider.
B) Document the finding in the client's chart.
C) Examine the client's feet for signs of injury.
D) Test sensory perception in the client's hands.? Answer:C

Diabetic neuropathy is common when the disease is of long duration. The
client is at great risk for injury in any area with decreased sensation
because he or she is less able to feel injurious events. Feet are common
locations for neuropathy and injury, so the nurse should inspect them for
any signs of injury. After assessing, the nurse should document findings in
the client's chart. Testing sensory perception in the hands may or may not
be needed. The health care provider can be notified after assessment and
documentation have been completed.

⏺ Which nursing intervention best assists a bedridden client to keep skin
intact?

A) Use a lift sheet to move the client in bed.

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